General Studies Mock Test 1

Answers and explanations

1. Question 1 / 100Indian Polity and Constitution

   Which of the following is a Fundamental Duty of citizens listed in Article 51A of the Constitution?

   1. ATo vote in every election
   2. BTo pay taxes on time
   3. CTo organise village panchayats
   4. DTo protect the natural environment
   See the answer and explanation

   Correct answer: D. To protect the natural environment

   Article 51A(g) makes it a duty of every citizen to protect and improve the natural environment, including forests, lakes, rivers and wild life. Voting and paying taxes are not among the Fundamental Duties. Organising village panchayats is a Directive Principle addressed to the State (Article 40).

   Source
2. Question 2 / 100Indian Polity and Constitution

   Under Article 21A, the State shall provide free and compulsory education to all children of which age group?

   1. A3 to 10 years
   2. B6 to 14 years
   3. C5 to 15 years
   4. D6 to 18 years
   See the answer and explanation

   Correct answer: B. 6 to 14 years

   Article 21A (Right to education) says the State shall provide free and compulsory education to all children aged six to fourteen years, in the manner the State decides by law.

   Source
3. Question 3 / 100Indian Polity and Constitution

   Which Article of the Constitution empowers the High Courts to issue writs such as habeas corpus and mandamus?

   1. AArticle 32
   2. BArticle 136
   3. CArticle 226
   4. DArticle 227
   See the answer and explanation

   Correct answer: C. Article 226

   Article 226 gives every High Court the power to issue directions, orders or writs, including habeas corpus, mandamus, prohibition, quo warranto and certiorari. Article 32 gives the Supreme Court the power to issue these writs only for the enforcement of Fundamental Rights; under Article 226 a High Court can issue them for the enforcement of Fundamental Rights and for any other purpose. Article 227 gives the High Court superintendence over the courts and tribunals in its area.

   Source
4. Question 4 / 100Indian Polity and Constitution

   Which Article among the Directive Principles of State Policy says the State shall endeavour to secure a uniform civil code for the citizens?

   1. AArticle 44
   2. BArticle 48A
   3. CArticle 50
   4. DArticle 51
   See the answer and explanation

   Correct answer: A. Article 44

   Article 44 says the State shall endeavour to secure for the citizens a uniform civil code throughout the territory of India. Article 48A is about protecting the environment, forests and wild life, Article 50 about separating the judiciary from the executive, and Article 51 about promoting international peace and security.

   Source
5. Question 5 / 100Indian Polity and Constitution

   Who presides over a joint sitting of the two Houses of Parliament?

   1. AThe President of India
   2. BThe Vice-President of India
   3. CThe Prime Minister
   4. DThe Speaker of the Lok Sabha
   See the answer and explanation

   Correct answer: D. The Speaker of the Lok Sabha

   Under Article 108, the President may summon the two Houses to meet in a joint sitting on a Bill. Article 118(4) says the Speaker of the House of the People (Lok Sabha) presides at a joint sitting.

   Source
6. Question 6 / 100Indian Polity and Constitution

   Within how many days of receiving a Money Bill must the Rajya Sabha return it, with its recommendations, to the Lok Sabha?

   1. A7 days
   2. B14 days
   3. C30 days
   4. D60 days
   See the answer and explanation

   Correct answer: B. 14 days

   Article 109(2) says the Council of States (Rajya Sabha) shall return a Money Bill to the House of the People within fourteen days from the date it receives the Bill. The Lok Sabha may then accept or reject any of the recommendations.

   Source
7. Question 7 / 100Indian Polity and Constitution

   What is the minimum age for appointment as the Governor of a State?

   1. A21 years
   2. B25 years
   3. C30 years
   4. D35 years
   See the answer and explanation

   Correct answer: D. 35 years

   Article 157 says a person is eligible for appointment as Governor only if he is a citizen of India and has completed the age of 35 years.

   Source
8. Question 8 / 100Indian Polity and Constitution

   Under Article 249, when can Parliament make laws on a matter in the State List in the national interest?

   1. AWhen the Rajya Sabha passes a resolution by two-thirds of members present and voting
   2. BWhen the Lok Sabha passes a resolution by a simple majority of its members
   3. CWhen the President issues an order after consulting the Supreme Court
   4. DWhen half of the State Legislatures pass resolutions asking for such a law
   See the answer and explanation

   Correct answer: A. When the Rajya Sabha passes a resolution by two-thirds of members present and voting

   Article 249 lets Parliament legislate on a State List matter if the Council of States (Rajya Sabha) declares, by a resolution supported by not less than two-thirds of the members present and voting, that it is necessary or expedient in the national interest.

   Source
9. Question 9 / 100Indian Polity and Constitution

   Under Article 243K, which body conducts elections to the Panchayats?

   1. AElection Commission of India
   2. BState Election Commission
   3. CState Public Service Commission
   4. DDistrict Collector
   See the answer and explanation

   Correct answer: B. State Election Commission

   Article 243K vests the preparation of electoral rolls and the conduct of all elections to the Panchayats in a State Election Commission, consisting of a State Election Commissioner appointed by the Governor.

   Source
10. Question 10 / 100Indian Polity and Constitution

    The matters that may be entrusted to Panchayats are listed in which Schedule of the Constitution?

    1. ANinth Schedule
    2. BTenth Schedule
    3. CEleventh Schedule
    4. DTwelfth Schedule
    See the answer and explanation

    Correct answer: C. Eleventh Schedule

    Article 243G lets the State Legislature give Panchayats powers and responsibilities, including on the matters listed in the Eleventh Schedule. That Schedule was added by the 73rd Amendment Act, 1992. The Twelfth Schedule lists matters for Municipalities.

    Source
11. Question 11 / 100Indian Polity and Constitution

    A member of a State Public Service Commission holds office for six years or until he reaches which age, whichever is earlier?

    1. A58 years
    2. B60 years
    3. C62 years
    4. D65 years
    See the answer and explanation

    Correct answer: C. 62 years

    Article 316(2) gives a member a term of six years, which ends earlier when the member reaches 65 in the Union Commission (UPSC) or 62 in a State or Joint Commission.

    Source
12. Question 12 / 100Indian Polity and Constitution

    The Constitution (106th Amendment) Act, 2023 inserted which Article to reserve seats for women in the Lok Sabha?

    1. AArticle 330A
    2. BArticle 332A
    3. CArticle 334A
    4. DArticle 338A
    See the answer and explanation

    Correct answer: A. Article 330A

    Article 330A reserves seats for women in the House of the People: about one-third of the seats filled by direct election. Article 332A does the same for State Legislative Assemblies. Under Article 334A, the reservation takes effect after a delimitation based on the first census taken after the 2023 Amendment.

    Source
13. Question 13 / 100Indian Polity and Constitution

    The Constitution (103rd Amendment) Act, 2019 allows reservation for economically weaker sections (EWS) in education and public employment up to a maximum of —

    1. A10 per cent
    2. B12 per cent
    3. C15 per cent
    4. D27 per cent
    See the answer and explanation

    Correct answer: A. 10 per cent

    The 103rd Amendment inserted Articles 15(6) and 16(6). They allow EWS reservation in addition to the existing reservations, subject to a maximum of ten per cent of the seats or posts in each category.

    Source
14. Question 14 / 100Indian Polity and Constitution

    Which Article of the Constitution contains special provisions for Andhra Pradesh and Telangana on equitable opportunities in public employment and education?

    1. AArticle 370
    2. BArticle 371A
    3. CArticle 371D
    4. DArticle 371J
    See the answer and explanation

    Correct answer: C. Article 371D

    Article 371D lets the President, by order, provide for equitable opportunities and facilities for people of different parts of Andhra Pradesh and of Telangana in public employment and in education, having regard to the needs of each State.

    Source
15. Question 15 / 100Indian and AP/TG Economy

    NITI Aayog, the Government of India's apex policy think tank, was constituted through a Union Cabinet resolution dated —

    1. A15 August 2014
    2. B1 January 2015
    3. C26 January 2015
    4. D1 April 2015
    See the answer and explanation

    Correct answer: B. 1 January 2015

    NITI Aayog's official website says it was constituted through a resolution of the Union Cabinet dated 1 January 2015, and describes it as the Government of India's apex policy think tank.

    Source
16. Question 16 / 100Indian and AP/TG Economy

    Under Article 112, what is the statement of estimated receipts and expenditure of the Government of India, laid before Parliament every financial year, called?

    1. AAnnual Financial Statement
    2. BAppropriation Account
    3. CVote on Account
    4. DFinance Accounts
    See the answer and explanation

    Correct answer: A. Annual Financial Statement

    Article 112 says the President shall cause a statement of the estimated receipts and expenditure of the Government of India for every financial year to be laid before both Houses, and calls it the 'annual financial statement'. This is the document commonly known as the Union Budget. A Vote on Account (Article 116) is a grant in advance for part of a year.

    Source
17. Question 17 / 100Indian and AP/TG Economy

    In the Union Budget 2026-27 (Budget Estimates), total expenditure is ₹53,47,315 crore, revenue receipts are ₹35,33,150 crore, recovery of loans is ₹38,397 crore and other receipts are ₹80,000 crore. What is the fiscal deficit?

    1. A₹16,95,768 crore
    2. B₹17,34,165 crore
    3. C₹17,75,768 crore
    4. D₹18,14,165 crore
    See the answer and explanation

    Correct answer: A. ₹16,95,768 crore

    Fiscal deficit = total expenditure − (revenue receipts + recovery of loans + other receipts) = 53,47,315 − (35,33,150 + 38,397 + 80,000) = ₹16,95,768 crore. Budget at a Glance 2026-27 shows the same figure, 4.3% of GDP. It shows the Government's total borrowing requirement.

    Source
18. Question 18 / 100Indian and AP/TG Economy

    At its meeting held from October 5 to 7, 2026, the RBI's Monetary Policy Committee set the policy repo rate at —

    1. A4.75 per cent
    2. B5.00 per cent
    3. C5.25 per cent
    4. D5.50 per cent
    See the answer and explanation

    Correct answer: D. 5.50 per cent

    The MPC voted unanimously to raise the repo rate by 25 basis points to 5.50 per cent. The standing deposit facility (SDF) rate became 5.25 per cent, and the marginal standing facility (MSF) rate and the Bank Rate 5.75 per cent. The stance was changed to 'calibrated tightening'.

    Source
19. Question 19 / 100Indian and AP/TG Economy

    Under the GST reforms that came into effect from 22 September 2025, which were the two main GST rates as of October 2026?

    1. A5% and 18%
    2. B5% and 12%
    3. C12% and 18%
    4. D18% and 28%
    See the answer and explanation

    Correct answer: A. 5% and 18%

    The GST 2.0 reforms moved the tax mainly to two slabs, 5% and 18%, with a special 40% rate for select luxury and sin goods. A PIB backgrounder dated 9 October 2026 describes the structure as two main rates, 5% and 18%, and a special 40% rate for select goods and services.

    Source
20. Question 20 / 100Indian and AP/TG Economy

    The VB–G RAM G Act, 2025, which replaced MGNREGA from 1 July 2026, guarantees how many days of wage employment per rural household in a financial year?

    1. A100 days
    2. B120 days
    3. C125 days
    4. D150 days
    See the answer and explanation

    Correct answer: C. 125 days

    The Viksit Bharat – Guarantee for Rozgar and Ajeevika Mission (Gramin) Act, 2025 raises the statutory guarantee from 100 to 125 days in every financial year for rural households whose adult members volunteer for unskilled manual work. It came into force across rural India on 1 July 2026, and MGNREGA was repealed from the same date.

    Source
21. Question 21 / 100Indian and AP/TG Economy

    Under PM-KISAN, how is the annual assistance of ₹6,000 to an eligible farmer family paid?

    1. ATwo instalments of ₹3,000
    2. BThree instalments of ₹2,000
    3. CFour instalments of ₹1,500
    4. DSix instalments of ₹1,000
    See the answer and explanation

    Correct answer: B. Three instalments of ₹2,000

    Each eligible farmer family gets ₹6,000 a year in three equal instalments of ₹2,000, paid into Aadhaar-seeded bank accounts. The 24th instalment, released on 30 October 2026 at Banaskantha, Gujarat, sent over ₹18,690 crore to 9.34 crore farmers.

    Source
22. Question 22 / 100Indian and AP/TG Economy

    What share of the divisible pool of Union taxes did the Sixteenth Finance Commission (award period 2026-27 to 2030-31) recommend for the States?

    1. A32 per cent
    2. B41 per cent
    3. C42 per cent
    4. D50 per cent
    See the answer and explanation

    Correct answer: B. 41 per cent

    The Sixteenth Finance Commission, which gave its report to the President on 17 November 2025, recommended retaining the States' share at 41 per cent of the divisible pool of Union taxes. The Union Government accepted it.

    Source
23. Question 23 / 100Indian and AP/TG Economy

    In the Sixteenth Finance Commission's inter se shares of States for 2026-27 to 2030-31, what is Andhra Pradesh's share?

    1. A2.174 per cent
    2. B3.357 per cent
    3. C4.217 per cent
    4. D4.897 per cent
    See the answer and explanation

    Correct answer: C. 4.217 per cent

    Table 8.9 of the Sixteenth Finance Commission report gives Andhra Pradesh 4.217 per cent and Telangana 2.174 per cent of the States' share of the divisible pool.

    Source
24. Question 24 / 100Indian and AP/TG Economy

    The FRBM fiscal policy statement laid in the Telangana Legislature with the Budget 2026-27 estimates the State's per capita income at current prices for 2025-26 at about —

    1. A₹2.20 lakh
    2. B₹3.10 lakh
    3. C₹3.80 lakh
    4. D₹4.19 lakh
    See the answer and explanation

    Correct answer: D. ₹4.19 lakh

    The FRBM fiscal policy statement in Telangana's Budget 2026-27 puts the State's per capita income for 2025-26 (Provisional Advance Estimates, PAE) at ₹4,18,931, against the national per capita income of ₹2,19,575, nearly double the national average. It was ₹3,80,031 in 2024-25.

    Source
25. Question 25 / 100Indian and AP/TG Economy

    The FRBM fiscal policy statement laid in the Telangana Legislature with the Budget 2026-27 gives these 2025-26 Provisional Advance Estimates (PAE) at current prices: primary sector ₹2,49,691 crore, secondary sector ₹2,68,325 crore and tertiary sector ₹11,30,596 crore. What is the tertiary sector's share in the total of these three sectors, to the nearest whole per cent?

    1. A48%
    2. B55%
    3. C62%
    4. D69%
    See the answer and explanation

    Correct answer: D. 69%

    Total = 2,49,691 + 2,68,325 + 11,30,596 = ₹16,48,612 crore. Tertiary share = 11,30,596 ÷ 16,48,612 × 100 = 68.58%, about 69%. The services sector is the largest part of Telangana's economy.

    Source
26. Question 26 / 100History and Culture

    Satavahana kings were identified through metronymics, that is, names taken from the mother's name, such as Gotami-puta ('son of Gotami'). Even so, how did succession to the Satavahana throne generally pass?

    1. AThrough the mother's line (matrilineal)
    2. BBy election among feudatory chiefs
    3. CThrough the father's line (patrilineal)
    4. DBy the choice of the Buddhist sangha
    See the answer and explanation

    Correct answer: C. Through the father's line (patrilineal)

    Satavahana rulers carried their mothers' names, but NCERT cautions that this does not mean mothers decided the throne: succession was generally patrilineal, that is, it passed through the father's line.

    Source
27. Question 27 / 100History and Culture

    According to tradition and inscriptions, who founded the Vijayanagara Empire in 1336?

    1. AHarihara and Bukka
    2. BKrishnadeva Raya and Achyuta Raya
    3. CGanapati Deva and Rudrama Devi
    4. DRama Raya and Tirumala Raya
    See the answer and explanation

    Correct answer: A. Harihara and Bukka

    NCERT: according to tradition and epigraphic evidence, two brothers, Harihara and Bukka, founded the Vijayanagara Empire in 1336. Krishnadeva Raya (ruled 1509-29) was its most famous ruler.

    Source
28. Question 28 / 100History and Culture

    The Rudreswara (Ramappa) Temple at Palampet in Mulugu district was built in 1213 AD by Recharla Rudra. He was a general of which Kakatiya ruler?

    1. ARudrama Devi
    2. BGanapati Deva
    3. CPrataparudra
    4. DProla II
    See the answer and explanation

    Correct answer: B. Ganapati Deva

    PIB (25 July 2021): the Rudreswara temple was built in 1213 AD by Recharla Rudra, a general of Kakatiya king Ganapati Deva. (UNESCO's description names the rulers as Rudradeva and Recharla Rudra.) It is called the Ramappa temple after the sculptor who worked on it for 40 years. It was inscribed on UNESCO's World Heritage List on 25 July 2021.

    Source
29. Question 29 / 100History and Culture

    Charminar in Hyderabad was built in 1591 by which ruler?

    1. AIbrahim Qutb Shah
    2. BAbdullah Qutb Shah
    3. CMuhammad Quli Qutb Shah
    4. DAbul Hasan Tana Shah
    See the answer and explanation

    Correct answer: C. Muhammad Quli Qutb Shah

    The Hyderabad district website says Charminar was built by Sultan Muhammad Quli Qutb Shah in 1591. Why it was built is still not clear; one popular belief is that it marks the end of a plague that had hit the city.

    Source
30. Question 30 / 100History and Culture

    In February 1922, Mahatma Gandhi called off the Non-Cooperation Movement after a peaceful demonstration turned into a violent clash with the police at which place?

    1. AChauri Chaura
    2. BChamparan
    3. CAhmedabad
    4. DSabarmati
    See the answer and explanation

    Correct answer: A. Chauri Chaura

    At Chauri Chaura in Gorakhpur, a peaceful demonstration in a bazaar turned into a violent clash with the police in February 1922. Hearing of it, Gandhiji called a halt to the Non-Cooperation Movement, which had been launched in January 1921.

    Source
31. Question 31 / 100History and Culture

    Alluri Sitarama Raju led an armed struggle in the Visakhapatnam Agency area from 1922. On 22 August 1922, which police station did his fighters attack first?

    1. AKrishnadevi Peta
    2. BRajavommangi
    3. CPaderu
    4. DChintapalli
    See the answer and explanation

    Correct answer: D. Chintapalli

    PIB: the first attack was made on Chintapalli police station in the Visakhapatnam Agency area on 22 August 1922, with over 300 fighters led by Raju; Krishnadevi Peta and Raja Ommangi (Rajavommangi) police stations were attacked after that. NCERT also records this movement in the Gudem Hills; Raju was captured and executed in 1924.

    Source
32. Question 32 / 100History and Culture

    In 1921, Pingali Venkayya presented a design of a flag to Mahatma Gandhi at a Congress meeting. In which town was that meeting held?

    1. AKakinada
    2. BVijayawada (Bezwada)
    3. CNagpur
    4. DLahore
    See the answer and explanation

    Correct answer: B. Vijayawada (Bezwada)

    A Ministry of Culture factsheet (PIB, 29 July 2022) says that in 1921, at the Bezwada (now Vijayawada) session of Congress, Pingali Venkayya presented a design of a flag to Mahatma Gandhi. This was the All India Congress Committee (AICC) meeting of 31 March - 1 April 1921. Gandhi wrote that he had asked Venkayya for a design with a spinning wheel on a red and green background. In 1931 a resolution adopted his flag with a small change: the red was replaced by saffron.

    Source
33. Question 33 / 100History and Culture

    When Andhra State was formed on 1 October 1953, which town became its capital?

    1. AGuntur
    2. BVisakhapatnam
    3. CKurnool
    4. DNellore
    See the answer and explanation

    Correct answer: C. Kurnool

    The Kurnool district website records that Kurnool was the capital from 1 October 1953 to 1 November 1956. On 1 November 1956, the Telangana region of Hyderabad State merged with Andhra State to form Andhra Pradesh.

    Source
34. Question 34 / 100History and Culture

    Under Section 5 of the Andhra Pradesh Reorganisation Act, 2014, Hyderabad was to be the common capital of Telangana and Andhra Pradesh for a period not exceeding how many years?

    1. AFive years
    2. BSeven years
    3. CEight years
    4. DTen years
    See the answer and explanation

    Correct answer: D. Ten years

    Section 5(1) made Hyderabad the common capital from the appointed day 'for such period not exceeding ten years'. Section 5(2) says that after this period Hyderabad shall be the capital of Telangana and there shall be a new capital for Andhra Pradesh. The common capital covers the area of the Greater Hyderabad Municipal Corporation.

    Source
35. Question 35 / 100History and Culture

    Which Telugu social reformer formed an association for widow remarriage in the Telugu-speaking areas of the Madras Presidency and also set up a Widows' Home?

    1. AGurajada Apparao
    2. BKomarraju Venkata Lakshmana Rao
    3. CGidugu Venkata Ramamurthy
    4. DKandukuri Veeresalingam
    See the answer and explanation

    Correct answer: D. Kandukuri Veeresalingam

    NCERT notes that in the Telugu-speaking areas of the Madras Presidency, Veerasalingam Pantulu formed an association for widow remarriage. A PIB release describes Kandukuri Veeresalingam as a well-known Telugu social reformer who promoted widow remarriage and established a Widows' Home.

    Source
36. Question 36 / 100History and Culture

    Telugu Language Day is celebrated every year on the birth anniversary of which linguist, who led a movement to make Telugu literature easy for common people to understand?

    1. AGidugu Venkata Ramamurthy
    2. BSuravaram Pratapa Reddy
    3. CViswanatha Satyanarayana
    4. DGurajada Apparao
    See the answer and explanation

    Correct answer: A. Gidugu Venkata Ramamurthy

    A PIB release of 29 August 2021 says the birth anniversary of Telugu writer and linguist Gidugu Venkata Ramamurthy is celebrated every year as Telugu Language Day. It credits him with spearheading a language movement to make Telugu literature comprehensible to common people.

    Source
37. Question 37 / 100History and Culture

    Bonalu, the Telangana festival in which Goddess Mahakali is worshipped, is celebrated in which Telugu month?

    1. ASravanam
    2. BAshadam
    3. CKarthikam
    4. DMagham
    See the answer and explanation

    Correct answer: B. Ashadam

    The Telangana State Portal says Bonalu is celebrated in the Telugu month of Ashadam (June-July), when Goddess Mahakali is worshipped. The same page notes that Bathukamma, a part of the Dasara festivities, is unique to Telangana.

    Source
38. Question 38 / 100History and Culture

    Medaram Jathara, held once in two years in honour of Goddesses Sammakka and Saralamma, is celebrated mainly by which tribal community?

    1. AGond
    2. BChenchu
    3. CKoya
    4. DLambada
    See the answer and explanation

    Correct answer: C. Koya

    PIB (Ministry of Tribal Affairs, 17 February 2022) describes Medaram Jathara as the largest tribal fair in Asia, celebrated for four days by the Koya tribe, the second-largest tribal community of Telangana. It is held once in two years in the month of Magha (February) on the full moon day.

    Source
39. Question 39 / 100History and Culture

    According to tradition, who, along with his guru Tirtha Narayana Yati, arranged the present-day form of the Kuchipudi dance?

    1. AAnnamacharya
    2. BKshetrayya
    3. CBhadrachala Ramadasu
    4. DSiddhendra Yogi
    See the answer and explanation

    Correct answer: D. Siddhendra Yogi

    The Krishna district website says Kuchipudi originated in a village of Krishna district, and that by tradition Tirtha Narayana Yati and his disciple Siddhendra Yogi initiated, methodized and arranged the present-day version of the dance.

    Source
40. Question 40 / 100Geography

    Which is the largest river system of Peninsular India, also called the 'Dakshin Ganga'?

    1. AKrishna
    2. BGodavari
    3. CMahanadi
    4. DKaveri
    See the answer and explanation

    Correct answer: B. Godavari

    NCERT: the Godavari is the largest Peninsular river system and is also called the Dakshin Ganga. It rises in the Nasik district of Maharashtra, is 1,465 km long and flows into the Bay of Bengal.

    Source
41. Question 41 / 100Geography

    The Krishna, the second largest east-flowing river of Peninsular India, rises near which place in the Sahyadri?

    1. ATrimbakeshwar
    2. BMahabaleshwar
    3. CAmarkantak
    4. DTalakaveri
    See the answer and explanation

    Correct answer: B. Mahabaleshwar

    NCERT: the Krishna is the second largest east-flowing Peninsular river; it rises near Mahabaleshwar in the Sahyadri and is 1,401 km long. The Koyna, the Tungabhadra and the Bhima are its major tributaries.

    Source
42. Question 42 / 100Geography

    Black soils, which are ideal for growing cotton, are also known as:

    1. ARegur soils
    2. BKhadar soils
    3. CBhabar soils
    4. DLaterite soils
    See the answer and explanation

    Correct answer: A. Regur soils

    NCERT: black soils are also known as regur soils. Because they are ideal for growing cotton, they are also called black cotton soils. Laterite soil, by contrast, gets its name from the Latin word 'later', meaning brick.

    Source
43. Question 43 / 100Geography

    Pre-monsoon showers that help in the early ripening of mangoes, locally called 'mango showers', are common in which region?

    1. AKerala and coastal Karnataka
    2. BWest Bengal and Assam
    3. CPunjab and western Uttar Pradesh
    4. DRajasthan and Gujarat
    See the answer and explanation

    Correct answer: A. Kerala and coastal Karnataka

    NCERT: towards the end of summer, pre-monsoon showers are common in Kerala and the coastal areas of Karnataka; they are called mango showers because they help mangoes ripen early. The dreaded evening thunderstorms of Bengal and Assam are a different local storm, called Nor Westers.

    Source
44. Question 44 / 100Geography

    Indian Standard Time (IST) is ahead of Greenwich Mean Time (GMT) by 5 hours 30 minutes. When it is 10:00 AM GMT, what is the time by IST?

    1. A4:30 AM
    2. B3:00 PM
    3. C3:30 PM
    4. D4:30 PM
    See the answer and explanation

    Correct answer: C. 3:30 PM

    IST is ahead of GMT, so add the difference: 10:00 + 5:30 = 15:30, that is 3:30 PM. The gap comes from India's standard meridian of 82°30' E: at 4 minutes per degree of longitude, 82.5 x 4 = 330 minutes = 5 hours 30 minutes.

    Source
45. Question 45 / 100Geography

    The Singareni Collieries Company Limited (SCCL) is jointly owned by the Government of Telangana and the Government of India. In what equity ratio (Telangana : India)?

    1. A50 : 50
    2. B51 : 49
    3. C60 : 40
    4. D26 : 74
    See the answer and explanation

    Correct answer: B. 51 : 49

    SCCL describes itself as a Government coal mining company jointly owned by the Government of Telangana and the Government of India on a 51:49 equity basis. Its coal reserves stretch across 350 km of the Pranahita-Godavari valley of Telangana.

    Source
46. Question 46 / 100Geography

    India's coastline was re-assessed by the National Hydrographic Office with the Survey of India, and the revised lengths (total 11,098.81 km) were given in Parliament in December 2025. As per those revised figures, among the States (Union Territories not counted), what is Andhra Pradesh's rank in coastline length?

    1. AFirst
    2. BSecond
    3. CThird
    4. DFourth
    See the answer and explanation

    Correct answer: C. Third

    PIB (Ministry of Earth Sciences, 4 December 2025, reply to a Parliament question): the National Hydrographic Office, with the Survey of India, re-assessed India's coastline from 7,516.6 km to 11,098.81 km. The revised lengths were promulgated by a Ministry of Ports, Shipping and Waterways circular dated 29 April 2025. Revised State figures: Gujarat 2,340.62 km, Tamil Nadu 1,068.69 km, Andhra Pradesh 1,053.07 km. On the old figures Andhra Pradesh (973.7 km) was second among the States, after Gujarat (1,214.7 km) and ahead of Tamil Nadu (906.9 km); on the revised figures it is third.

    Source
47. Question 47 / 100Geography

    Which irrigation project was declared a 'national project' by Section 90 of the Andhra Pradesh Reorganisation Act, 2014?

    1. APolavaram
    2. BKaleshwaram
    3. CNagarjuna Sagar
    4. DSrisailam
    See the answer and explanation

    Correct answer: A. Polavaram

    Section 90(1) of the Act states: 'The Polavaram Irrigation Project is hereby declared to be a national project.' Section 90(2) adds that the Union should take under its control the regulation and development of the project for the purposes of irrigation.

    Source
48. Question 48 / 100Geography

    The Sriram Sagar Project at Pochampad village in Nizamabad district is built across which river?

    1. AManjira
    2. BKrishna
    3. CPranahita
    4. DGodavari
    See the answer and explanation

    Correct answer: D. Godavari

    The Nizamabad district website says the Sriram Sagar Project (SRSP), one of the biggest projects in Telangana, was built across the River Godavari at Pochampad village of Mupkal mandal. Jawaharlal Nehru laid its foundation in July 1963, and it supplies irrigation water to about 3.92 lakh hectares.

    Source
49. Question 49 / 100Geography

    The Nellore belt of Andhra Pradesh is an important producer of which mineral?

    1. AMica
    2. BCopper
    3. CBauxite
    4. DGypsum
    See the answer and explanation

    Correct answer: A. Mica

    NCERT: the Koderma-Gaya-Hazaribagh belt of Jharkhand is the leading mica producer. The area around Ajmer in Rajasthan and the Nellore mica belt of Andhra Pradesh are also important producers.

    Source
50. Question 50 / 100Geography

    As per the Telangana State Portal, how many districts did Telangana have as of November 2026?

    1. A31
    2. B29
    3. C35
    4. D33
    See the answer and explanation

    Correct answer: D. 33

    As of November 2026, the Telangana State Portal listed 33 districts. When the State was formed in 2014, Section 3 of the AP Reorganisation Act listed 10 districts; on 11 October 2016, 21 new districts were formed, and later additions took the total to 33.

    Source
51. Question 51 / 100General Science and Technology

    An electric iron rated 1000 W is used for 2 hours every day. How many units (kWh) of electrical energy does it use in 30 days?

    1. A6 units
    2. B30 units
    3. C60 units
    4. D600 units
    See the answer and explanation

    Correct answer: C. 60 units

    Energy = power × time = 1 kW × 2 hours × 30 days = 60 kWh. The commercial unit of electrical energy is the kilowatt hour (kWh), which is what the electricity bill calls one 'unit'.

    Source
52. Question 52 / 100General Science and Technology

    The refractive index of a transparent medium is 1.6. If light travels at 3 × 10^8 m/s in vacuum, what is its speed in this medium?

    1. A1.6 × 10^8 m/s
    2. B1.875 × 10^8 m/s
    3. C3 × 10^8 m/s
    4. D4.8 × 10^8 m/s
    See the answer and explanation

    Correct answer: B. 1.875 × 10^8 m/s

    Refractive index n = speed of light in vacuum ÷ speed of light in the medium, so v = c ÷ n = (3 × 10^8) ÷ 1.6 = 1.875 × 10^8 m/s. Light slows down in a medium, so the answer must be less than 3 × 10^8 m/s; multiplying by n (4.8 × 10^8) is a common mistake.

    Source
53. Question 53 / 100General Science and Technology

    What is the chemical name of baking soda, used in cooking?

    1. ASodium chloride (NaCl)
    2. BSodium carbonate (Na2CO3)
    3. CCalcium carbonate (CaCO3)
    4. DSodium hydrogencarbonate (NaHCO3)
    See the answer and explanation

    Correct answer: D. Sodium hydrogencarbonate (NaHCO3)

    Baking soda is sodium hydrogencarbonate, NaHCO3. It is produced using sodium chloride as one of the raw materials. Sodium chloride itself is common salt, and sodium carbonate is the compound in washing soda.

    Source
54. Question 54 / 100General Science and Technology

    According to the NCERT Class 10 Science textbook, tooth decay starts when the pH in the mouth falls below which value?

    1. A4.5
    2. B5.5
    3. C6.5
    4. D7.5
    See the answer and explanation

    Correct answer: B. 5.5

    Tooth enamel, made of calcium hydroxyapatite, is the hardest substance in the body. It does not dissolve in water but is corroded when the pH in the mouth goes below 5.5. Bacteria in the mouth make acids from sugar and food left after eating, so cleaning the mouth after eating helps prevent decay.

    Source
55. Question 55 / 100General Science and Technology

    Gold used for ornaments in India is usually 22 carat: 22 parts of pure gold alloyed with 2 parts of copper or silver. What percentage of it is pure gold?

    1. A22%
    2. B75%
    3. C91.67%
    4. D99.9%
    See the answer and explanation

    Correct answer: C. 91.67%

    Pure gold is 24 carat. In 22 carat gold, 22 of every 24 parts are gold, so the share is 22 ÷ 24 × 100 = 91.67%. Pure gold is very soft, so it is alloyed with copper or silver to make it hard enough for jewellery.

    Source
56. Question 56 / 100General Science and Technology

    Which blood vessels carry blood away from the heart to the various organs of the body?

    1. AArteries
    2. BVeins
    3. CCapillaries
    4. DLymph vessels
    See the answer and explanation

    Correct answer: A. Arteries

    Arteries carry blood away from the heart. Because blood leaves the heart under high pressure, arteries have thick, elastic walls. Veins collect blood from the organs and bring it back to the heart.

    Source
57. Question 57 / 100General Science and Technology

    Insulin, the hormone that helps regulate blood sugar levels, is produced by which organ?

    1. ALiver
    2. BThyroid gland
    3. CPituitary gland
    4. DPancreas
    See the answer and explanation

    Correct answer: D. Pancreas

    Insulin is produced by the pancreas. When blood sugar rises, cells of the pancreas respond by producing more insulin. If insulin is not secreted in proper amounts, blood sugar rises, which is why some people with diabetes take insulin injections.

    Source
58. Question 58 / 100General Science and Technology

    In human beings, what decides whether a child is a boy or a girl?

    1. AChromosome from the father
    2. BChromosome from the mother
    3. CBoth parents equally
    4. DTemperature in the womb
    See the answer and explanation

    Correct answer: A. Chromosome from the father

    All children inherit an X chromosome from the mother. A child who inherits an X chromosome from the father is a girl, and one who inherits a Y chromosome from him is a boy. So the chromosome from the father decides the sex of the child.

    Source
59. Question 59 / 100General Science and Technology

    The ozone layer shields the Earth from the Sun's ultraviolet (UV) radiation. Its depletion since the 1980s has been linked to which synthetic chemicals, used as refrigerants?

    1. ACarbon dioxide (CO2)
    2. BAmmonia (NH3)
    3. CChlorofluorocarbons (CFCs)
    4. DEthanol (C2H5OH)
    See the answer and explanation

    Correct answer: C. Chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs)

    The amount of ozone in the atmosphere began to drop sharply in the 1980s, and this has been linked to chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs), synthetic chemicals used as refrigerants. In 1987 the United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP) got countries to agree to freeze CFC production at 1986 levels.

    Source
60. Question 60 / 100General Science and Technology

    NVS-03, launched by GSLV-F18 from Sriharikota on 30 October 2026, was built to serve which Indian system?

    1. AGaganyaan human spaceflight
    2. BNavIC satellite navigation
    3. CChandrayaan Moon exploration
    4. DAditya-L1 solar observation
    See the answer and explanation

    Correct answer: B. NavIC satellite navigation

    NVS-03 is the third of ISRO's second-generation navigation satellites, built to keep NavIC, India's own satellite navigation system, running without a break; it continues the services of the IRNSS series. It carries an indigenous atomic clock and adds an L1 signal to the existing L5 and S-band signals.

    Source
61. Question 61 / 100General Science and Technology

    Aditya-L1, India's first space-based mission to study the Sun, is in a halo orbit around the Lagrange point L1 of the Sun-Earth system. About how far is L1 from the Earth?

    1. A0.384 million km
    2. B1.5 million km
    3. C15 million km
    4. D150 million km
    See the answer and explanation

    Correct answer: B. 1.5 million km

    ISRO says the L1 point of the Sun-Earth system is about 1.5 million km (15 lakh km) from the Earth. A satellite in a halo orbit around L1 can watch the Sun continuously, without any eclipse. Aditya-L1 was inserted into this halo orbit on 6 January 2024.

    Source
62. Question 62 / 100General Science and Technology

    Under which section of the Information Technology Act, 2000 does the Indian Computer Emergency Response Team (CERT-In) serve as the national agency for incident response?

    1. ASection 66A
    2. BSection 69A
    3. CSection 70B
    4. DSection 79A
    See the answer and explanation

    Correct answer: C. Section 70B

    Section 70B says the Central Government shall appoint an agency called the Indian Computer Emergency Response Team, and that it serves as the national agency for cyber security work such as collecting and analysing information on cyber incidents and issuing alerts. CERT-In's advisory of 4 November 2026 (CIAD-2026-0058), which warned that a group it calls CRAFTY FALCON was breaking into the payment systems of NBFCs and fintech firms, is one such alert.

    Source
63. Question 63 / 100General Science and Technology

    Francis Halzen won the Nobel Prize in Physics 2026 for his contributions to the IceCube observatory and the discovery of which high-energy particles of astrophysical origin?

    1. AGravitons
    2. BGluons
    3. CPositrons
    4. DNeutrinos
    See the answer and explanation

    Correct answer: D. Neutrinos

    The Physics prize for 2026 went to Francis Halzen alone 'for decisive contributions to the IceCube Neutrino Observatory and the discovery of high-energy neutrinos of astrophysical origin'. The 2026 prize in Physiology or Medicine went to Karl Deisseroth, Peter Hegemann and Georg Nagel for discoveries on light-gated ion channels and optogenetics.

    Source
64. Question 64 / 100Current Affairs

    According to provisional figures released on 1 November 2026, what was India's gross GST collection for October 2026?

    1. ARs 2.31 lakh crore
    2. BRs 2.64 lakh crore
    3. CRs 2.97 lakh crore
    4. DRs 3.30 lakh crore
    See the answer and explanation

    Correct answer: A. Rs 2.31 lakh crore

    Gross GST for October 2026 rose 22.9% to Rs 2,31,290 crore from Rs 1,88,125 crore a year earlier. Andhra Pradesh's domestic GST grew 24% to Rs 4,307 crore, the fastest among the southern states, and Telangana's rose 14% to Rs 5,958 crore.

    Source
65. Question 65 / 100Current Affairs

    The 31st CII Partnership Summit was scheduled for 12-13 November 2026 in which city?

    1. ATirupati
    2. BAmaravati
    3. CVijayawada
    4. DVisakhapatnam
    See the answer and explanation

    Correct answer: D. Visakhapatnam

    The 31st CII Partnership Summit was scheduled for Thursday, 12 November and Friday, 13 November 2026 in Visakhapatnam. Chief Minister N. Chandrababu Naidu reviewed the arrangements in Amaravati on 7 November 2026. The 2025 edition was also held in Visakhapatnam.

    Source
66. Question 66 / 100Current Affairs

    The Andhra Pradesh Reorganisation (Amendment) Act, 2026 named Amaravati as the new capital of Andhra Pradesh in Section 5 of the 2014 Act. From which date is this amending Act deemed to have come into force?

    1. A2 June 2024
    2. B2 June 2025
    3. C28 March 2026
    4. D6 April 2026
    See the answer and explanation

    Correct answer: A. 2 June 2024

    Section 1(2) of the Andhra Pradesh Reorganisation (Amendment) Act, 2026 (No. 7 of 2026) says the Act shall be deemed to have come into force on 2 June 2024. In Section 5(2) of the 2014 Act it replaced the words 'and there shall be a new capital' with 'and Amaravati shall be the new capital'. The Andhra Pradesh Legislative Assembly asked for this change in a resolution passed on 28 March 2026. The Bill was introduced in the Lok Sabha on 1 April 2026 and received the President's assent on 6 April 2026.

    Source
67. Question 67 / 100Current Affairs

    Under the agreement signed on 6 November 2026 under the amended BharatNet programme, the fibre network in Telangana covers how many gram panchayats?

    1. A8,120
    2. B9,345
    3. C11,204
    4. D12,769
    See the answer and explanation

    Correct answer: D. 12,769

    The Centre approved Rs 3,189 crore for the amended BharatNet programme in Telangana. The 12,769 gram panchayats are 1,946 panchayats already connected in the first phase, whose network is to be redrawn as a ring, 10,787 from phase two and 36 new ones. Digital Bharat Nidhi, the Telangana government, TRIICL, BSNL and T-Fiber signed the pact in New Delhi.

    Source
68. Question 68 / 100Current Affairs

    The science museum opened at Kosgi in Telangana's Narayanpet district on 8 November 2026 is named after a physicist who won the Nobel Prize in Physics in 1930. What was that prize for?

    1. AWork on the scattering of light
    2. BTheory of the photoelectric effect
    3. CDiscovery of the neutron
    4. DDiscovery of radioactivity
    See the answer and explanation

    Correct answer: A. Work on the scattering of light

    The Kosgi museum, built for Rs 6 crore, is named after Sir C.V. Raman. He won the 1930 Physics Nobel 'for his work on the scattering of light and for the discovery of the effect named after him'. In 1928 he found that a small part of scattered light changes its wavelength.

    Source
69. Question 69 / 100Current Affairs

    In the final of the men's Asian Champions Trophy hockey tournament at Mohali on 5 November 2026, India beat Japan 4-1. Counting the 2018 title shared with Pakistan, how many titles had India won in this tournament up to and including the 2026 edition?

    1. AFour
    2. BFive
    3. CSix
    4. DSeven
    See the answer and explanation

    Correct answer: C. Six

    India's earlier titles came in 2011, 2016, 2018, 2023 and 2024; in 2018 the final could not be played and India and Pakistan were declared joint winners. The 2026 win is therefore a record sixth title and India's third in a row. Trailing for more than 40 minutes, India scored all four goals late through Shilanand Lakra, Dilpreet Singh, Jugraj Singh and Vivek Sagar Prasad, and finished the tournament unbeaten.

    Source
70. Question 70 / 100Current Affairs

    Mohammed Shami retired from Test cricket on 6 November 2026, exactly 13 years after his Test debut. At which ground did he make that debut?

    1. AWankhede Stadium, Mumbai
    2. BEden Gardens, Kolkata
    3. CM. Chinnaswamy Stadium, Bengaluru
    4. DArun Jaitley Stadium, Delhi
    See the answer and explanation

    Correct answer: B. Eden Gardens, Kolkata

    Shami announced his Test retirement on Instagram on 6 November 2026, 13 years to the day after his debut at Eden Gardens, Kolkata, in 2013. He finished with 229 wickets in 64 Tests at an average of 27.71. His last Test was the 2023 World Test Championship final at The Oval.

    Source
71. Question 71 / 100Current Affairs

    Glaw Lake, announced on 3 August 2026 as India's 101st Ramsar site, is the first Ramsar site of which state?

    1. AArunachal Pradesh
    2. BNagaland
    3. CSikkim
    4. DMeghalaya
    See the answer and explanation

    Correct answer: A. Arunachal Pradesh

    Union Environment Minister Bhupender Yadav announced on 3 August 2026 that Glaw Lake in Arunachal Pradesh had been designated as India's 101st Ramsar site. It is the state's first Ramsar site. Glaw Lake is a freshwater lake in the Eastern Himalayas, inside the Kamlang Tiger Reserve and Wildlife Sanctuary. India had 26 Ramsar sites in 2014.

    Source
72. Question 72 / 100Current Affairs

    Revised prices of 137 non-scheduled anti-cancer drugs were set to take effect on 9 November 2026. Which app can people use to check these prices?

    1. AAarogya Setu
    2. BeSanjeevani
    3. CPharma Sahi Daam
    4. DCoWIN
    See the answer and explanation

    Correct answer: C. Pharma Sahi Daam

    Trade margins on these drugs are capped at 30%. Of 1,225 formulations with new prices, 1,031 are cheaper, and the National Pharmaceutical Pricing Authority (NPPA) estimates patients will save Rs 3,502.31 crore a year. Prices can be checked on the Pharma Sahi Daam app, and complaints made on 1800-11-1255.

    Source
73. Question 73 / 100Current Affairs

    National Legal Services Day, which marks the coming into force of the Legal Services Authorities Act, 1987, is observed on which date?

    1. A24 January
    2. B9 November
    3. C26 November
    4. D10 December
    See the answer and explanation

    Correct answer: B. 9 November

    National Legal Services Day falls on 9 November. It marks the coming into force of the Legal Services Authorities Act, 1987 on 9 November 1995. Under the Act, the National Legal Services Authority (NALSA) and the state authorities give free legal aid and hold Lok Adalats. NALSA's schedule for 2026 fixed the year's last National Lok Adalat for Saturday, 12 December 2026.

    Source
74. Question 74 / 100Current Affairs

    Under the Rs 2,814 crore CAPEX Support Scheme to Promote Critical Mineral Processing, approved by the Union Cabinet on 4 November 2026, what rate of capital subsidy is offered on eligible investment in new lithium and nickel processing plants?

    1. A10%
    2. B20%
    3. C25%
    4. D30%
    See the answer and explanation

    Correct answer: D. 30%

    The scheme offers a capital subsidy of 30% of eligible investment for four plants: two lithium plants of at least 30,000 tonnes capacity each and two nickel plants of at least 50,000 tonnes each. Support is capped at Rs 500 crore per lithium beneficiary and Rs 900 crore per nickel beneficiary, and the bidders seeking the lowest support are chosen, two for each mineral. The scheme aims at 60,000 tonnes of lithium and 100,000 tonnes of nickel processing capacity by 2030.

    Source
75. Question 75 / 100Current Affairs

    Who was awarded the Nobel Peace Prize 2026 'for her efforts to promote peace and international law'?

    1. ANavanethem Pillay
    2. BMichelle Bachelet
    3. CMary Robinson
    4. DLouise Arbour
    See the answer and explanation

    Correct answer: A. Navanethem Pillay

    The Norwegian Nobel Committee gave the 2026 Peace Prize to Navanethem 'Navi' Pillay alone. Born into a family of Indian Tamil origin in Durban, South Africa, she has served as a judge of the International Criminal Tribunal for Rwanda and the International Criminal Court, and was the United Nations High Commissioner for Human Rights.

    Source
76. Question 76 / 100Mental Ability and Quantitative Aptitude

    Find the next number in the series: 3, 7, 15, 31, 63, ?

    1. A123
    2. B125
    3. C127
    4. D129
    See the answer and explanation

    Correct answer: C. 127

    Each number is twice the previous number plus 1: 3×2+1 = 7, 7×2+1 = 15, 15×2+1 = 31, 31×2+1 = 63. So the next number is 63×2+1 = 127.

77. Question 77 / 100Mental Ability and Quantitative Aptitude

    Find the next number in the series: 4, 9, 25, 49, 121, ?

    1. A144
    2. B169
    3. C196
    4. D225
    See the answer and explanation

    Correct answer: B. 169

    These are the squares of consecutive prime numbers: 2², 3², 5², 7², 11². The prime after 11 is 13, and 13² = 169.

78. Question 78 / 100Mental Ability and Quantitative Aptitude

    Find the next letter in the series: A, C, F, J, O, ?

    1. AT
    2. BU
    3. CV
    4. DW
    See the answer and explanation

    Correct answer: B. U

    Take the alphabet positions (A=1, B=2, …): 1, 3, 6, 10, 15. The gaps are +2, +3, +4, +5, so the next gap is +6: 15 + 6 = 21, which is U.

79. Question 79 / 100Mental Ability and Quantitative Aptitude

    2 : 8 :: 3 : 27 :: 5 : ? — 8 is related to 2, and 27 to 3, in the same way. Which number is related to 5 in that same way?

    1. A25
    2. B75
    3. C100
    4. D125
    See the answer and explanation

    Correct answer: D. 125

    In each pair the second number is the cube of the first: 2³ = 8 and 3³ = 27. So the answer is 5³ = 125.

80. Question 80 / 100Mental Ability and Quantitative Aptitude

    In a certain code, MANGO is written as OCPIQ. How is APPLE written in that code?

    1. ACRRNG
    2. BBQQMF
    3. CDSSOH
    4. DCRQNG
    See the answer and explanation

    Correct answer: A. CRRNG

    Each letter moves 2 places forward in the alphabet: M→O, A→C, N→P, G→I, O→Q. In the same way A→C, P→R, P→R, L→N, E→G, which gives CRRNG.

81. Question 81 / 100Mental Ability and Quantitative Aptitude

    In a certain code, BREAD is written as CTHEI. How is CANDLE written in that code?

    1. ADBOEMF
    2. BDCQGPK
    3. CDCQHQK
    4. DIFRGNF
    See the answer and explanation

    Correct answer: C. DCQHQK

    Each letter moves forward by its position in the word (1st letter by 1, 2nd by 2, and so on): B+1=C, R+2=T, E+3=H, A+4=E, D+5=I. For CANDLE: C+1=D, A+2=C, N+3=Q, D+4=H, L+5=Q, E+6=K, which gives DCQHQK.

82. Question 82 / 100Mental Ability and Quantitative Aptitude

    Pointing to a girl in a photo, Suresh said, "My father's father has only one son. This girl is the only daughter of that son." How is the girl related to Suresh?

    1. AMother
    2. BDaughter
    3. CWife
    4. DSister
    See the answer and explanation

    Correct answer: D. Sister

    Suresh's father's father is his grandfather. The grandfather's only son is Suresh's father. The only daughter of Suresh's father is Suresh's sister.

83. Question 83 / 100Mental Ability and Quantitative Aptitude

    Suppose: P + Q means P is the father of Q; P − Q means P is the wife of Q; P × Q means P is the brother of Q; P ÷ Q means P is the daughter of Q. If A + B × C − D, how is A related to D?

    1. AFather
    2. BBrother
    3. CSon-in-law
    4. DFather-in-law
    See the answer and explanation

    Correct answer: D. Father-in-law

    A + B: A is the father of B. B × C: B is the brother of C, so C is also A's child. C − D: C is the wife of D. So A is the father of D's wife, that is, D's father-in-law.

84. Question 84 / 100Mental Ability and Quantitative Aptitude

    Ramu walks 6 km towards North. Then he turns to his right and walks 8 km. How far is he now from his starting point, in a straight line?

    1. A7 km
    2. B10 km
    3. C12 km
    4. D14 km
    See the answer and explanation

    Correct answer: B. 10 km

    Turning right while facing North means he now faces East. 6 km North and 8 km East form a right angle, so the distance is √(6² + 8²) = √100 = 10 km.

85. Question 85 / 100Mental Ability and Quantitative Aptitude

    Seema walks 5 km towards South. She then turns left and walks 3 km, turns left again and walks 9 km, and finally turns right and walks 2 km. In which direction is she now from her starting point?

    1. ANorth-East
    2. BNorth-West
    3. CSouth-East
    4. DSouth-West
    See the answer and explanation

    Correct answer: A. North-East

    Take the start as (0, 0). South 5 km → (0, −5). Left from South is East: 3 km → (3, −5). Left from East is North: 9 km → (3, 4). Right from North is East: 2 km → (5, 4). She is 5 km East and 4 km North of the start, so she is to the North-East.

86. Question 86 / 100Mental Ability and Quantitative Aptitude

    Statements: (1) All pens are books. (2) Some books are bags. Conclusions: I. Some pens are bags. II. Some bags are books. Taking the statements to be true, which conclusion(s) definitely follow?

    1. AOnly I follows
    2. BOnly II follows
    3. CBoth I and II follow
    4. DNeither I nor II follows
    See the answer and explanation

    Correct answer: B. Only II follows

    'Some books are bags' can be turned around as 'Some bags are books', so II follows. All the pens may lie in the part of the books that has no bags, so 'Some pens are bags' is not certain, and I does not follow. So only II follows.

87. Question 87 / 100Mental Ability and Quantitative Aptitude

    Six friends P, Q, R, S, T and U sit in a row, all facing North. R sits second from the right end. There are exactly two people between R and P. T sits immediately to the left of P. Q sits next to R, but Q is not at either end. U sits to the right of S (not necessarily next to S). Who sits exactly in the middle between P and Q?

    1. AR
    2. BS
    3. CT
    4. DU
    See the answer and explanation

    Correct answer: B. S

    Number the places 1 to 6 from left to right. R is in place 5. Two people between R and P puts P in place 2. T is just left of P, in place 1. Q is next to R and not at an end, so Q is in place 4. S and U take places 3 and 6; U is to the right of S, so S is 3 and U is 6. The order is T, P, S, Q, R, U, so S sits between P and Q.

88. Question 88 / 100Mental Ability and Quantitative Aptitude

    What is the smaller angle between the hour hand and the minute hand of a clock at 3:40?

    1. A110°
    2. B120°
    3. C130°
    4. D140°
    See the answer and explanation

    Correct answer: C. 130°

    The hour hand moves 30° per hour and 0.5° per minute, and the minute hand 6° per minute. So at H hours M minutes the hands are (30 × H + 0.5 × M)° and (6 × M)° from the 12 mark, and the difference is |30 × H − 5.5 × M|. Angle = |30 × H − 5.5 × M| = |30 × 3 − 5.5 × 40| = |90 − 220| = 130°. This is less than 180°, so the smaller angle is 130°.

89. Question 89 / 100Mental Ability and Quantitative Aptitude

    1 January 2026 was a Thursday. What day of the week will 1 January 2029 be?

    1. ASaturday
    2. BSunday
    3. CMonday
    4. DTuesday
    See the answer and explanation

    Correct answer: C. Monday

    From 1 January 2026 to 1 January 2029 we pass through 2026 (365 days, 1 odd day), 2027 (365 days, 1 odd day) and 2028 (a leap year, 366 days, 2 odd days). Total odd days = 4. Thursday + 4 days = Monday.

90. Question 90 / 100Mental Ability and Quantitative Aptitude

    The average marks of 30 students in a test were worked out as 62. Later it was found that one student's marks had been entered as 84 instead of 48. What is the correct average?

    1. A60.2
    2. B60.8
    3. C61.2
    4. D63.2
    See the answer and explanation

    Correct answer: B. 60.8

    Wrong total = 30 × 62 = 1,860. Correct total = 1,860 − 84 + 48 = 1,824. Correct average = 1,824 ÷ 30 = 60.8.

91. Question 91 / 100Mental Ability and Quantitative Aptitude

    The price of rice goes up by 25%. By what percentage must a family cut its rice consumption so that its spending on rice stays the same?

    1. A15%
    2. B18%
    3. C20%
    4. D25%
    See the answer and explanation

    Correct answer: C. 20%

    Cut needed = rise ÷ (100 + rise) × 100 = 25 ÷ 125 × 100 = 20%. Check: new price 125 × quantity 80 = 10,000, the same as old price 100 × quantity 100.

92. Question 92 / 100Mental Ability and Quantitative Aptitude

    The present ages of Anil and Balu are in the ratio 4 : 7. After 6 years the ratio will be 5 : 8. What is Balu's present age?

    1. A36 years
    2. B40 years
    3. C42 years
    4. D48 years
    See the answer and explanation

    Correct answer: C. 42 years

    Let the ages be 4x and 7x. (4x + 6) ÷ (7x + 6) = 5 ÷ 8 gives 32x + 48 = 35x + 30, so x = 6. Balu's age = 7 × 6 = 42 years. (Anil is 24; after 6 years, 30 : 48 = 5 : 8.)

93. Question 93 / 100Mental Ability and Quantitative Aptitude

    A can finish a piece of work alone in 10 days and B can finish it alone in 15 days. They work together for 3 days, and then A leaves. In how many more days will B finish the remaining work?

    1. A6 days
    2. B6.5 days
    3. C7 days
    4. D7.5 days
    See the answer and explanation

    Correct answer: D. 7.5 days

    In one day A does 1/10 of the work and B does 1/15; together 1/10 + 1/15 = 1/6. In 3 days they finish 3 × 1/6 = 1/2. B does the other 1/2 alone in (1/2) ÷ (1/15) = 7.5 days.

94. Question 94 / 100Mental Ability and Quantitative Aptitude

    A train 180 metres long, running at 72 km/h, crosses a platform in 25 seconds. What is the length of the platform?

    1. A300 m
    2. B320 m
    3. C340 m
    4. D500 m
    See the answer and explanation

    Correct answer: B. 320 m

    72 km/h = 72 × 5/18 = 20 metres per second. In 25 seconds the train covers 20 × 25 = 500 m, which is its own length plus the platform. Platform = 500 − 180 = 320 m.

95. Question 95 / 100Mental Ability and Quantitative Aptitude

    What is the simple interest on ₹8,000 at 6% per annum for 3 years?

    1. A₹1,240
    2. B₹1,340
    3. C₹1,400
    4. D₹1,440
    See the answer and explanation

    Correct answer: D. ₹1,440

    Simple interest = P × R × T ÷ 100 = 8,000 × 6 × 3 ÷ 100 = ₹1,440.

96. Question 96 / 100Mental Ability and Quantitative Aptitude

    On a certain sum of money, the difference between the compound interest (compounded yearly) and the simple interest for 2 years at 5% per annum is ₹25. What is the sum?

    1. A₹2,500
    2. B₹5,000
    3. C₹7,500
    4. D₹10,000
    See the answer and explanation

    Correct answer: D. ₹10,000

    For 2 years, CI − SI = P × (R/100)². So 25 = P × (5/100)² = P ÷ 400, which gives P = ₹10,000. Check: CI = ₹1,025 and SI = ₹1,000.

97. Question 97 / 100Mental Ability and Quantitative Aptitude

    A shopkeeper buys an article for ₹800 and sells it for ₹920. What is his profit percentage?

    1. A15%
    2. B18%
    3. C20%
    4. D24%
    See the answer and explanation

    Correct answer: A. 15%

    Profit = 920 − 800 = ₹120. Profit % = 120 ÷ 800 × 100 = 15%.

98. Question 98 / 100Mental Ability and Quantitative Aptitude

    A shopkeeper gives a 10% discount on an article with a marked price of ₹600 and still makes a 20% profit. What is his cost price?

    1. A₹400
    2. B₹420
    3. C₹432
    4. D₹450
    See the answer and explanation

    Correct answer: D. ₹450

    Selling price = 600 × 90/100 = ₹540. This is 120% of the cost price, so cost price = 540 × 100/120 = ₹450.

99. Question 99 / 100Mental Ability and Quantitative Aptitude

    A shop sold these numbers of books in five months: January: 120; February: 150; March: 135; April: 180; May: 165. What is the average number of books sold per month?

    1. A150
    2. B155
    3. C160
    4. D165
    See the answer and explanation

    Correct answer: A. 150

    Total = 120 + 150 + 135 + 180 + 165 = 750. Average = 750 ÷ 5 = 150.

100. Question 100 / 100Mental Ability and Quantitative Aptitude

     A shop sold these numbers of books in five months: January: 120; February: 150; March: 135; April: 180; May: 165. In which month was the percentage increase in sales over the previous month the highest?

     1. AFebruary
     2. BMarch
     3. CApril
     4. DMay
     See the answer and explanation

     Correct answer: C. April

     February: (150 − 120) ÷ 120 = a 25% rise. March: fell to 135 (−10%). April: (180 − 135) ÷ 135 = a 33.3% rise. May: fell to 165 (−8.3%). The highest rise is in April.