General Studies Mock Test 2

Answers and explanations

1. Question 1 / 100Indian Polity and Constitution

   According to the Preamble, on which date did the people of India, in the Constituent Assembly, adopt, enact and give to themselves the Constitution?

   1. A9 December 1946
   2. B15 August 1947
   3. C26 November 1949
   4. D26 January 1950
   See the answer and explanation

   Correct answer: C. 26 November 1949

   The Preamble ends with the words 'this twenty-sixth day of November, 1949, do hereby adopt, enact and give to ourselves this Constitution'. 26 January 1950 is the tempting wrong choice: under Article 394 that is the date on which most provisions of the Constitution came into force, called its commencement.

   Source
2. Question 2 / 100Indian Polity and Constitution

   Under Article 22, a person who is arrested and detained in custody must be produced before the nearest magistrate within what period of the arrest, excluding the time needed for the journey?

   1. A12 hours
   2. B24 hours
   3. C48 hours
   4. D72 hours
   See the answer and explanation

   Correct answer: B. 24 hours

   Article 22(2) says every person who is arrested and detained in custody shall be produced before the nearest magistrate within twenty-four hours of the arrest, excluding the time needed for the journey from the place of arrest to the magistrate's court. No one can be held beyond that period without a magistrate's authority.

   Source
3. Question 3 / 100Indian Polity and Constitution

   Article 300A says that no person shall be deprived of his property save by authority of law. Which Constitution Amendment Act inserted this Article?

   1. ATwenty-fourth Amendment
   2. BTwenty-fifth Amendment
   3. CForty-second Amendment
   4. DForty-fourth Amendment
   See the answer and explanation

   Correct answer: D. Forty-fourth Amendment

   The Constitution (Forty-fourth Amendment) Act, 1978 inserted Article 300A with effect from 20 June 1979 and, from the same date, omitted Article 31 (compulsory acquisition of property) from Part III. So the right to property is no longer a Fundamental Right but remains a constitutional right. The Forty-second Amendment (1976) is the one that changed the Preamble.

   Source
4. Question 4 / 100Indian Polity and Constitution

   Until Parliament by law provides otherwise, the quorum to constitute a meeting of either House of Parliament is what fraction of the total number of members of that House?

   1. AOne-tenth
   2. BOne-fifth
   3. COne-fourth
   4. DOne-third
   See the answer and explanation

   Correct answer: A. One-tenth

   Article 100(3) fixes the quorum of either House at one-tenth of the total number of members of the House. If there is no quorum during a meeting, the Chairman or Speaker must adjourn the House or suspend the meeting until there is a quorum (Article 100(4)).

   Source
5. Question 5 / 100Indian Polity and Constitution

   Under Article 171, the total number of members in the Legislative Council of a State shall in no case be less than —

   1. A30
   2. B40
   3. C50
   4. D60
   See the answer and explanation

   Correct answer: B. 40

   Article 171(1) says the Legislative Council of a State shall not have more than one-third of the total number of members in that State's Legislative Assembly, and its proviso adds that the Council shall in no case have fewer than forty members. So the upper limit depends on the size of the Assembly, while the lower limit is fixed at 40.

   Source
6. Question 6 / 100Indian Polity and Constitution

   An Ordinance promulgated by the President under Article 123 ceases to operate on the expiry of what period from the reassembly of Parliament, unless it is disapproved by both Houses or withdrawn earlier?

   1. ASix weeks
   2. BTwo months
   3. CSix months
   4. DOne year
   See the answer and explanation

   Correct answer: A. Six weeks

   Article 123(2) says an Ordinance must be laid before both Houses and ceases to operate six weeks after Parliament reassembles, or earlier if both Houses pass resolutions disapproving it; the President may also withdraw it at any time. If the Houses reassemble on different dates, the six weeks are counted from the later date.

   Source
7. Question 7 / 100Indian Polity and Constitution

   Under Article 75(1A), the total number of Ministers in the Union Council of Ministers, including the Prime Minister, shall not exceed what percentage of the total number of members of the Lok Sabha?

   1. A10 per cent
   2. B12 per cent
   3. C15 per cent
   4. D20 per cent
   See the answer and explanation

   Correct answer: C. 15 per cent

   Clause (1A) of Article 75 limits the Council of Ministers, including the Prime Minister, to fifteen per cent of the total number of members of the House of the People. It was inserted by the Constitution (Ninety-first Amendment) Act, 2003, with effect from 1 January 2004. Article 164(1A) sets the same 15 per cent limit for States, with a minimum of twelve Ministers.

   Source
8. Question 8 / 100Indian Polity and Constitution

   Under Article 124(4), a Judge of the Supreme Court can be removed by an order of the President, passed after an address by each House of Parliament, on which ground?

   1. AViolation of the Constitution
   2. BInsolvency or infirmity of mind
   3. CLoss of confidence of the Lok Sabha
   4. DProved misbehaviour or incapacity
   See the answer and explanation

   Correct answer: D. Proved misbehaviour or incapacity

   A Supreme Court Judge can be removed only on the ground of proved misbehaviour or incapacity. Each House must support the address by a majority of its total membership and by not less than two-thirds of the members present and voting. 'Violation of the Constitution' is the ground for impeaching the President (Articles 56 and 61), not for removing a Judge.

   Source
9. Question 9 / 100Indian Polity and Constitution

   A Proclamation under Article 356 (President's Rule in a State) that has been approved by both Houses of Parliament ceases to operate, unless revoked or continued by fresh resolutions, on the expiry of what period from the date of its issue?

   1. ATwo months
   2. BSix months
   3. COne year
   4. DThree years
   See the answer and explanation

   Correct answer: B. Six months

   Under Article 356(4) an approved Proclamation ceases to operate six months from the date of its issue; each fresh approval by both Houses extends it by six months, but never beyond three years in all. Two months is a different limit: a Proclamation lapses at the end of two months unless both Houses approve it within that time (Article 356(3)).

   Source
10. Question 10 / 100Indian Polity and Constitution

    Under Article 151, to whom are the reports of the Comptroller and Auditor-General of India (CAG) relating to the accounts of a State submitted?

    1. AThe President
    2. BThe Chief Minister of the State
    3. CThe Governor of the State
    4. DThe Speaker of the State Legislative Assembly
    See the answer and explanation

    Correct answer: C. The Governor of the State

    Article 151(2) says CAG reports on the accounts of a State go to the Governor of the State, who causes them to be laid before the State Legislature. The President receives the reports on the accounts of the Union and causes them to be laid before each House of Parliament (Article 151(1)).

    Source
11. Question 11 / 100Indian Polity and Constitution

    Under Article 280, the Finance Commission constituted by the President consists of a Chairman and how many other members?

    1. AOne
    2. BTwo
    3. CThree
    4. DFour
    See the answer and explanation

    Correct answer: D. Four

    Article 280(1) requires the President to constitute a Finance Commission at the expiration of every fifth year, or earlier if necessary, consisting of a Chairman and four other members appointed by the President. One of its duties is to recommend how the net proceeds of shareable taxes are distributed between the Union and the States.

    Source
12. Question 12 / 100Indian Polity and Constitution

    Under Article 243ZD, at least what fraction of the total members of a District Planning Committee must be elected by, and from amongst, the elected members of the district-level Panchayat and of the Municipalities in the district?

    1. AOne-third
    2. BOne-half
    3. CTwo-thirds
    4. DFour-fifths
    See the answer and explanation

    Correct answer: D. Four-fifths

    Article 243ZD says not less than four-fifths of the members of a District Planning Committee shall be elected by, and from amongst, the elected members of the district-level Panchayat and the Municipalities in the district, in proportion to the rural and urban populations. Two-thirds is the tempting wrong choice: that is the share fixed for a Metropolitan Planning Committee under Article 243ZE.

    Source
13. Question 13 / 100Indian Polity and Constitution

    The Tenth Schedule of the Constitution, which contains the provisions as to disqualification on the ground of defection, was added by which Constitution Amendment Act?

    1. AFifty-second Amendment
    2. BSixty-first Amendment
    3. CSeventy-third Amendment
    4. DEighty-sixth Amendment
    See the answer and explanation

    Correct answer: A. Fifty-second Amendment

    The Tenth Schedule was added by the Constitution (Fifty-second Amendment) Act, 1985, with effect from 1 March 1985. It is linked to Articles 102(2) and 191(2), under which a person disqualified under this Schedule cannot be a member of either House of Parliament or of a State Legislature.

    Source
14. Question 14 / 100Indian Polity and Constitution

    Before the Andhra Pradesh Reorganisation Act, 2014, the undivided State had 18 seats in the Rajya Sabha. When the Act amended the Fourth Schedule of the Constitution to divide them, how many seats were allotted to Telangana?

    1. A6
    2. B7
    3. C9
    4. D11
    See the answer and explanation

    Correct answer: B. 7

    Section 12 of the Act changed Andhra Pradesh's entry in the Fourth Schedule from 18 to 11 and inserted a new entry for Telangana with 7 seats. So 18 − 11 = 7 seats went to Telangana. Eleven is the tempting wrong choice: that is Andhra Pradesh's share.

    Source
15. Question 15 / 100Indian and AP/TG Economy

    If depreciation is deducted from Gross National Product (GNP), what is the resulting measure called?

    1. ANet National Product (NNP)
    2. BNet Domestic Product (NDP)
    3. CGross Domestic Product (GDP)
    4. DPersonal Disposable Income
    See the answer and explanation

    Correct answer: A. Net National Product (NNP)

    The NCERT Class 12 Macroeconomics textbook defines NNP as GNP minus depreciation, the wear and tear of capital during the year. Net Domestic Product is the tempting wrong choice, but that is what is left when depreciation is taken out of GDP, not GNP. When net indirect taxes are also removed from NNP at market prices, we get NNP at factor cost, which is National Income.

    Source
16. Question 16 / 100Indian and AP/TG Economy

    In a simple banking system, the cash reserve ratio (CRR) is 20 per cent and banks lend as much as the CRR allows. What is the maximum total amount of deposits that reserves of ₹100 can support?

    1. A₹120
    2. B₹400
    3. C₹500
    4. D₹2,000
    See the answer and explanation

    Correct answer: C. ₹500

    Deposits can grow until reserves are just 20 per cent of them: maximum deposits = reserves ÷ CRR = 100 ÷ 0.20 = ₹500. The money multiplier is 1 ÷ 0.20 = 5. ₹400 is the tempting wrong choice: that is the most the banks can lend, not the total deposits.

    Source
17. Question 17 / 100Indian and AP/TG Economy

    The ratio of nominal GDP to real GDP is a well-known index of prices. What is it called?

    1. AConsumer Price Index (CPI)
    2. BGDP Deflator
    3. CWholesale Price Index (WPI)
    4. DProducer Price Index (PPI)
    See the answer and explanation

    Correct answer: B. GDP Deflator

    The NCERT Class 12 Macroeconomics textbook calls the ratio of nominal to real GDP the GDP deflator. It takes into account all goods and services produced in the country. The Consumer Price Index is different: it tracks the prices of a given basket of commodities bought by the representative consumer, and so includes imported goods too.

    Source
18. Question 18 / 100Indian and AP/TG Economy

    Under Article 279A, every decision of the Goods and Services Tax Council must be taken by a majority of not less than what fraction of the weighted votes of the members present and voting?

    1. AOne-half
    2. BTwo-thirds
    3. CThree-fourths
    4. DFour-fifths
    See the answer and explanation

    Correct answer: C. Three-fourths

    Article 279A(9) requires a majority of not less than three-fourths of the weighted votes of the members present and voting. The Central Government's vote carries a weightage of one-third of the total votes cast, and the votes of all the State Governments together carry two-thirds. Two-thirds is therefore the States' weightage, not the majority needed.

    Source
19. Question 19 / 100Indian and AP/TG Economy

    According to 'Budget at a Glance' in the Union Budget 2026-27, which deficit is measured as the fiscal deficit less interest payments?

    1. ARevenue Deficit
    2. BEffective Revenue Deficit
    3. CMonetised Deficit
    4. DPrimary Deficit
    See the answer and explanation

    Correct answer: D. Primary Deficit

    Budget at a Glance 2026-27 defines Primary Deficit as Fiscal Deficit less interest payments. Revenue Deficit is the excess of revenue expenditure over revenue receipts, and Effective Revenue Deficit is Revenue Deficit minus Grants-in-Aid for Creation of Capital Assets.

    Source
20. Question 20 / 100Indian and AP/TG Economy

    According to the NCERT textbook 'Indian Economic Development', which Five Year Plan was based on the ideas of the statistician Prasanta Chandra Mahalanobis?

    1. AFirst
    2. BSecond
    3. CThird
    4. DFifth
    See the answer and explanation

    Correct answer: B. Second

    The textbook says the Second Five Year Plan laid down the basic ideas regarding the goals of Indian planning and was based on the ideas of Mahalanobis. For that reason it says he can be regarded as the architect of Indian planning.

    Source
21. Question 21 / 100Indian and AP/TG Economy

    The Minimum Support Prices (MSP) for Rabi crops for Marketing Season 2027-28, approved on 30 September 2026, follow the Union Budget 2018-19 announcement of fixing MSP at a level of at least how many times the all-India weighted average cost of production?

    1. A1.5 times
    2. B2 times
    3. C2.5 times
    4. D3 times
    See the answer and explanation

    Correct answer: A. 1.5 times

    The PIB release of 30 September 2026 says the increase is in line with the Union Budget 2018-19 announcement of fixing the MSP at a level of at least 1.5 times the all-India weighted average cost of production. For Marketing Season 2027-28 the expected margin over cost ranged from 50 per cent for safflower to 106 per cent for wheat.

    Source
22. Question 22 / 100Indian and AP/TG Economy

    NITI Aayog's report 'National Multidimensional Poverty Index: A Progress Review 2023' measures deprivations across three equally weighted dimensions: health, education and standard of living. How many indicators represent these dimensions?

    1. A10
    2. B12
    3. C14
    4. D17
    See the answer and explanation

    Correct answer: B. 12

    The National MPI uses 12 SDG-aligned indicators: nutrition, child and adolescent mortality, maternal health, years of schooling, school attendance, cooking fuel, sanitation, drinking water, electricity, housing, assets and bank accounts. The report, released on 17 July 2023, found that 13.5 crore people moved out of multidimensional poverty between 2015-16 and 2019-21.

    Source
23. Question 23 / 100Indian and AP/TG Economy

    In the balance of payments, remittances that residents receive from abroad are counted as transfer payments. In which account are transfer payments recorded?

    1. ACapital Account
    2. BFinancial Account
    3. CErrors and Omissions
    4. DCurrent Account
    See the answer and explanation

    Correct answer: D. Current Account

    The NCERT Class 12 Macroeconomics textbook says the current account is the record of trade in goods and services and transfer payments, and that transfer payments consist of gifts, remittances and grants. The capital account is the tempting wrong choice, but it records international transactions of assets such as money, stocks and bonds.

    Source
24. Question 24 / 100Indian and AP/TG Economy

    In the Andhra Pradesh Budget for 2026-27, presented on 14 February 2026, what total expenditure did the Finance Minister propose?

    1. AAbout ₹2.56 lakh crore
    2. BAbout ₹2.94 lakh crore
    3. CAbout ₹3.22 lakh crore
    4. DAbout ₹3.32 lakh crore
    See the answer and explanation

    Correct answer: D. About ₹3.32 lakh crore

    The Budget speech proposed an expenditure of ₹3,32,205 crore for 2026-27, which includes revenue expenditure of ₹2,56,143 crore and capital expenditure of ₹53,915 crore. ₹2.56 lakh crore is therefore only the revenue expenditure, not the total.

    Source
25. Question 25 / 100Indian and AP/TG Economy

    Telangana's fiscal policy statement of March 2026, laid in the State Legislature with the Budget 2026-27, estimates the State's GSDP at current prices for 2025-26 (Provisional Advance Estimates) at about —

    1. A₹8.90 lakh crore
    2. B₹16.10 lakh crore
    3. C₹17.82 lakh crore
    4. D₹19.75 lakh crore
    See the answer and explanation

    Correct answer: C. ₹17.82 lakh crore

    The statement estimates Telangana's GSDP at current prices for 2025-26 (PAE) at ₹17,82,198 crore, against ₹16,09,902 crore in 2024-25, a growth of 10.7 per cent. ₹8.90 lakh crore (₹8,89,582 crore) is the 2025-26 GSDP at constant prices, not current prices.

    Source
26. Question 26 / 100History and Culture

    In the 1830s, which officer in the mint of the East India Company deciphered Brahmi and Kharosthi, two scripts used in the earliest inscriptions and coins?

    1. AJames Prinsep
    2. BAlexander Cunningham
    3. CWilliam Jones
    4. DColin Mackenzie
    See the answer and explanation

    Correct answer: A. James Prinsep

    NCERT (Themes in Indian History, Part I) says James Prinsep, an officer in the mint of the East India Company, deciphered Brahmi and Kharosthi in the 1830s. He found that most of the inscriptions mentioned a king referred to as Piyadassi, meaning 'pleasant to behold'. Colin Mackenzie is a tempting wrong choice: he visited Vijayanagara in 1800, but he did not decipher these scripts.

    Source
27. Question 27 / 100History and Culture

    The Prayaga Prashasti, also known as the Allahabad Pillar Inscription, was composed in Sanskrit by Harishena. He was the court poet of which Gupta ruler?

    1. AChandragupta I
    2. BSamudragupta
    3. CChandragupta II
    4. DSkandagupta
    See the answer and explanation

    Correct answer: B. Samudragupta

    NCERT states that the Prayaga Prashasti was composed in Sanskrit by Harishena, the court poet of Samudragupta, arguably the most powerful of the Gupta rulers (c. fourth century CE). Chandragupta II is a tempting wrong choice because he is another well-known Gupta ruler, but Harishena was the court poet of Samudragupta.

    Source
28. Question 28 / 100History and Culture

    According to the NCERT history textbook, Walter Elliot, a British official, collected several sculpture panels from a Buddhist stupa and took them away to Madras. These came to be called the 'Elliot marbles'. From which stupa were they taken?

    1. ASanchi
    2. BBharhut
    3. CNagarjunakonda
    4. DAmaravati
    See the answer and explanation

    Correct answer: D. Amaravati

    NCERT records that Walter Elliot visited Amaravati in 1854, collected several sculpture panels and took them away to Madras; they came to be called the Elliot marbles. He concluded that the structure at Amaravati was one of the largest and most magnificent Buddhist stupas ever built. Sanchi is the tempting wrong choice, but there the plea for preserving sculptures at the site itself was adopted.

    Source
29. Question 29 / 100History and Culture

    According to the East Godavari district website, the Eastern Chalukya dynasty was founded by Kubjavishnu (Kubja Vishnuvardhana). He was the brother of which Chalukya ruler of Badami?

    1. APulakesin I
    2. BKirtivarman I
    3. CPulakesin II
    4. DVikramaditya I
    See the answer and explanation

    Correct answer: C. Pulakesin II

    The district's history page says Pulakesin II, the Chalukya ruler of Badami, attacked Pistapura (Pithapuram) with the help of his brother Kubjavishnu, who was given the newly acquired territories in the east. The Eastern Chalukyas ruled first from Pistapura, then from Vengi and later from Rajamahendri (Rajahmundry). Pulakesin I is a tempting wrong choice because of the similar name, but he is a different ruler.

    Source
30. Question 30 / 100History and Culture

    Which ruler of Vijayanagara composed the Amuktamalyada, a work in Telugu?

    1. ADeva Raya II
    2. BKrishnadeva Raya
    3. CAchyuta Raya
    4. DRama Raya
    See the answer and explanation

    Correct answer: B. Krishnadeva Raya

    NCERT says Krishnadeva Raya (ruled 1509-29), the most famous ruler of Vijayanagara, composed a work on statecraft in Telugu known as the Amuktamalyada. Rama Raya is a tempting wrong choice: he was the chief minister who led the Vijayanagara army into battle at Rakshasi-Tangadi (Talikota) in 1565, not the author of this work.

    Source
31. Question 31 / 100History and Culture

    The Sultanate of Golconda, ruled by the Qutb Shahis, emerged in the early sixteenth century on the collapse of which kingdom?

    1. AVijayanagara empire
    2. BKakatiya kingdom
    3. CDelhi Sultanate
    4. DBahmani kingdom
    See the answer and explanation

    Correct answer: D. Bahmani kingdom

    The NCERT timeline lists 'Collapse of the Bahmani kingdom, emergence of the Sultanate of Golconda (1518)'. The Vijayanagara empire is the tempting wrong choice, but it had not collapsed then: Golconda was one of the Sultanates whose combined armies routed the Vijayanagara forces at Rakshasi-Tangadi (Talikota) in 1565.

    Source
32. Question 32 / 100History and Culture

    Osmania University in Hyderabad was founded by Osman Ali Khan, the seventh Nizam. According to the university, which language was the medium of instruction in all branches of higher education, including Medicine and Engineering, in its first phase (1917 to 1947)?

    1. APersian
    2. BTelugu
    3. CUrdu
    4. DEnglish
    See the answer and explanation

    Correct answer: C. Urdu

    Osmania University's history page says its first phase (1917 to 1947) was characterised by Urdu as the medium of instruction in all branches of higher education, including Medicine and Engineering. A firman for the university was issued on 26 April 1917. English is the tempting wrong choice, but Sir Akbar Hydari's memorandum of early 1917 had asked for a university with Urdu as the medium of instruction.

    Source
33. Question 33 / 100History and Culture

    In 1947-48, as the movement of the people of Hyderabad State against the Nizam's rule gathered force, the Nizam unleashed a paramilitary force on the people. By what name was this force known?

    1. ARazakars
    2. BPindaris
    3. CRohillas
    4. DKhudai Khidmatgars
    See the answer and explanation

    Correct answer: A. Razakars

    NCERT says the Nizam responded to the people's movement by unleashing a para-military force known as the razakars. In September 1948 the Indian army moved in to control the Nizam's forces; after a few days of intermittent fighting the Nizam surrendered, which led to Hyderabad's accession to India. The Khudai Khidmatgars were volunteers of the freedom movement in the North-West Frontier Province, not a force of the Nizam.

    Source
34. Question 34 / 100History and Culture

    In December 1929, the Lahore session of the Congress formalised the demand of 'Purna Swaraj' or full independence for India. Who presided over this session?

    1. AJawaharlal Nehru
    2. BMotilal Nehru
    3. CSubhas Chandra Bose
    4. DVallabhbhai Patel
    See the answer and explanation

    Correct answer: A. Jawaharlal Nehru

    NCERT: in December 1929, under the presidency of Jawaharlal Nehru, the Lahore Congress formalised the demand of 'Purna Swaraj' or full independence for India. It was declared that 26 January 1930 would be celebrated as the Independence Day. Motilal Nehru is the tempting wrong choice because of the shared family name, but the Lahore session was presided over by Jawaharlal Nehru.

    Source
35. Question 35 / 100History and Culture

    Under the Inland Emigration Act of 1859, which group of workers was not permitted to leave the workplace without permission, and was rarely given such permission?

    1. AIndigo cultivators in Champaran
    2. BTextile mill workers in Bombay
    3. CCoal miners in Jharia
    4. DTea plantation workers in Assam
    See the answer and explanation

    Correct answer: D. Tea plantation workers in Assam

    NCERT says that under the Inland Emigration Act of 1859, plantation workers were not permitted to leave the tea gardens without permission, and were rarely given it. For plantation workers in Assam, freedom meant the right to move freely in and out of the confined space in which they were enclosed. The Champaran choice is tempting because Champaran is linked with an oppressive plantation system, but this Act applied to the tea gardens.

    Source
36. Question 36 / 100History and Culture

    In 1873, which social reformer wrote a book named 'Gulamgiri', meaning slavery?

    1. AB.R. Ambedkar
    2. BJyotirao Phule
    3. CShri Narayana Guru
    4. DE.V. Ramaswamy Naicker
    See the answer and explanation

    Correct answer: B. Jyotirao Phule

    NCERT: in 1873 Jyotirao Phule wrote a book named Gulamgiri, meaning slavery. The Satyashodhak Samaj, an association Phule founded, propagated caste equality. B.R. Ambedkar is the tempting wrong choice because he too fought caste discrimination, but his work came later: NCERT records that he started a temple entry movement in 1927.

    Source
37. Question 37 / 100History and Culture

    Whose death during an indefinite fast for a separate Andhra caused great unrest in the Andhra region, after which the Prime Minister announced the formation of a separate Andhra state in December 1952?

    1. APotti Sriramulu
    2. BTanguturi Prakasam
    3. CN.G. Ranga
    4. DPattabhi Sitaramayya
    See the answer and explanation

    Correct answer: A. Potti Sriramulu

    NCERT: Potti Sriramulu, a Congress leader and a veteran Gandhian, went on an indefinite fast that led to his death. This caused great unrest and resulted in violent outbursts in the Andhra region, and finally the Prime Minister announced the formation of a separate Andhra state in December 1952. Tanguturi Prakasam is the tempting wrong choice: he was a prominent Andhra leader, but he is not the leader who died fasting.

    Source
38. Question 38 / 100History and Culture

    According to the Telangana State Portal, the Telangana region was part of Hyderabad State from 17 September 1948. On which date was it merged with Andhra State to form Andhra Pradesh?

    1. A26 January 1950
    2. B1 October 1953
    3. C1 November 1956
    4. D1 May 1960
    See the answer and explanation

    Correct answer: C. 1 November 1956

    The Telangana State Portal says the Telangana region was part of Hyderabad State from 17 September 1948 to 1 November 1956, until it was merged with Andhra State to form Andhra Pradesh. NCERT notes that the States Reorganisation Act was passed in 1956. 1 October 1953 is the tempting wrong choice: that is the date on which Andhra State itself was formed, before this merger.

    Source
39. Question 39 / 100History and Culture

    According to the Telangana State Portal, which dance form, also known as the 'dance of warriors', evolved under Kakatiya rule?

    1. AChindu Bhagavatham
    2. BOggu Katha
    3. CPerini Sivatandavam
    4. DGussadi
    See the answer and explanation

    Correct answer: C. Perini Sivatandavam

    The Telangana State Portal says Kakatiya rule led to the evolution of dance forms such as Perini Sivatandavam, also known as the 'dance of warriors'. Chindu Bhagavatham is the tempting wrong choice: the same page describes it as a variant of Yakshagana, a theatre art form performed widely across Telangana, and does not link it to the Kakatiyas.

    Source
40. Question 40 / 100Geography

    Which is the highest peak of the Peninsular plateau of India?

    1. ADodabetta
    2. BAnaimudi
    3. CMahendragiri
    4. DKalsubai
    See the answer and explanation

    Correct answer: B. Anaimudi

    NCERT: Anaimudi (2,695 m), the highest peak of the Peninsular plateau, is located on the Anaimalai hills of the Western Ghats, followed by Dodabetta (2,637 m) on the Nilgiri hills. Dodabetta is therefore the tempting wrong choice: it comes second, not first.

    Source
41. Question 41 / 100Geography

    Which of these biosphere reserves, designated in 2010, is located in Andhra Pradesh?

    1. ASeshachalam
    2. BAgasthyamalai
    3. CNokrek
    4. DPachmarhi
    See the answer and explanation

    Correct answer: A. Seshachalam

    NCERT's list of biosphere reserves shows Seshachalam, designated in 2010, in Andhra Pradesh. Agasthyamalai (2001) is in Tamil Nadu and Kerala, Nokrek (1988) in Meghalaya and Pachmarhi (1999) in Madhya Pradesh. Agasthyamalai is the tempting wrong choice because it is also in South India, but it is not in Andhra Pradesh.

    Source
42. Question 42 / 100Geography

    According to NCERT, which of these rivers is a principal tributary of the Godavari?

    1. AKoyna
    2. BBhima
    3. CTungabhadra
    4. DManjira
    See the answer and explanation

    Correct answer: D. Manjira

    NCERT names the Penganga, the Indravati, the Pranhita and the Manjra (Manjira) as principal tributaries of the Godavari. The Koyna, the Tungabhadra and the Bhima are listed as major tributaries of the Krishna. Tungabhadra is the tempting wrong choice because it is a well-known river of the Telugu states, but it is a tributary of the Krishna.

    Source
43. Question 43 / 100Geography

    In winter, the pleasant weather of north-western India is disturbed at intervals by shallow cyclonic depressions (western disturbances), which bring some rain. Over which sea do these depressions originate?

    1. AArabian Sea
    2. BCaspian Sea
    3. CMediterranean Sea
    4. DRed Sea
    See the answer and explanation

    Correct answer: C. Mediterranean Sea

    NCERT: the winter weather is disturbed at intervals by shallow cyclonic depressions originating over the east Mediterranean Sea, which travel eastwards across West Asia, Iran, Afghanistan and Pakistan before reaching north-western India. The Caspian Sea is the tempting wrong choice: it only adds moisture on the way, as does the Persian Gulf. The rain is meagre but highly beneficial for rabi crops.

    Source
44. Question 44 / 100Geography

    The name of laterite soil has been derived from the Latin word 'later'. What does 'later' mean?

    1. ABrick
    2. BRed
    3. CRock
    4. DRain
    See the answer and explanation

    Correct answer: A. Brick

    NCERT: laterite has been derived from the Latin word 'later', which means brick. The laterite soil develops under tropical and subtropical climate with alternate wet and dry season, and is the result of intense leaching due to heavy rain. 'Red' is the tempting wrong choice because of the colour usually linked with this soil, but that is not what the Latin word means.

    Source
45. Question 45 / 100Geography

    In which year was Project Tiger launched in India to conserve the tiger and its habitat?

    1. A1952
    2. B1972
    3. C1973
    4. D1992
    See the answer and explanation

    Correct answer: C. 1973

    NCERT: special schemes like Project Tiger (1973) and Project Elephant (1992) have been launched to conserve these species and their habitat; Project Tiger has been implemented since 1973. 1972 is the tempting wrong choice: that is the year in which a comprehensive Wildlife Act was enacted, one year before Project Tiger. 1992 is the year of Project Elephant.

    Source
46. Question 46 / 100Geography

    The Khetri mines in Rajasthan are among India's leading producers of which mineral?

    1. ACopper
    2. BManganese
    3. CIron ore
    4. DBauxite
    See the answer and explanation

    Correct answer: A. Copper

    NCERT: the Balaghat mines in Madhya Pradesh, the Khetri mines in Rajasthan and Singhbhum district of Jharkhand are leading producers of copper. Bauxite is the tempting wrong choice, but NCERT places India's bauxite deposits mainly in the Amarkantak plateau, the Maikal hills and the plateau region of Bilaspur-Katni.

    Source
47. Question 47 / 100Geography

    Which port on the east coast of India is described by NCERT as the deepest landlocked and well-protected port, originally conceived as an outlet for iron ore exports?

    1. AChennai
    2. BParadip
    3. CKolkata
    4. DVisakhapatnam
    See the answer and explanation

    Correct answer: D. Visakhapatnam

    NCERT: Visakhapatnam is the deepest landlocked and well-protected port; it was originally conceived as an outlet for iron ore exports. Paradip is the tempting wrong choice because NCERT says it specialises in the export of iron ore, but it is not described as the deepest landlocked port. Chennai is one of the oldest artificial ports, and Kolkata is an inland riverine port.

    Source
48. Question 48 / 100Geography

    Kolleru Lake in Andhra Pradesh, a Ramsar site, functions as a natural flood-balancing reservoir. Between which two major river basins is it situated?

    1. AKrishna and Penna
    2. BGodavari and Krishna
    3. CMahanadi and Godavari
    4. DPenna and Palar
    See the answer and explanation

    Correct answer: B. Godavari and Krishna

    The Ramsar Information Sheet says Lake Kolleru, a natural eutrophic lake, is situated between the two major river basins of the Godavari and the Krishna, and has been functioning as a natural flood-balancing reservoir between the deltas of the two rivers. It is fed directly by two seasonal rivers, the Budameru and the Tammileru. 'Krishna and Penna' is the tempting wrong choice because the Krishna is one of the two, but the other basin is the Godavari, not the Penna.

    Source
49. Question 49 / 100Geography

    The Mangampet deposit in Andhra Pradesh (erstwhile Kadapa district) is described by the Indian Bureau of Mines as the single largest deposit in the world of which mineral?

    1. AAsbestos
    2. BLimestone
    3. CBarytes
    4. DMica
    See the answer and explanation

    Correct answer: C. Barytes

    The Indian Minerals Yearbook 2022 of the Indian Bureau of Mines says the Mangampet deposit in Andhra Pradesh (erstwhile Kadapa district) is the single largest barytes deposit in the world, and that Andhra Pradesh alone accounts for 92% of the country's barytes resources. Mica is the tempting wrong choice because Andhra Pradesh is also known for mica, but the Mangampet deposit is of barytes.

    Source
50. Question 50 / 100Geography

    According to the Telangana State Portal, which state, along with Maharashtra, lies to the north of Telangana?

    1. AChhattisgarh
    2. BOdisha
    3. CMadhya Pradesh
    4. DKarnataka
    See the answer and explanation

    Correct answer: A. Chhattisgarh

    The Telangana State Portal says Telangana is surrounded by Maharashtra and Chhattisgarh in the north, Karnataka in the west and Andhra Pradesh in the south and east directions. Karnataka is the tempting wrong choice because it is also a neighbour, but it lies to the west, not the north.

    Source
51. Question 51 / 100General Science and Technology

    A potential difference of 12 V is applied across the ends of a resistor of resistance 4 Ω. According to Ohm's law, how much current flows through the resistor?

    1. A0.33 A
    2. B3 A
    3. C16 A
    4. D48 A
    See the answer and explanation

    Correct answer: B. 3 A

    Ohm's law gives V = IR, so I = V/R = 12 V ÷ 4 Ω = 3 A. Multiplying the two numbers (48) or adding them (16) is the common slip, and 0.33 comes from dividing the resistance by the voltage. The SI unit of resistance is the ohm (Ω) and that of current is the ampere (A).

    Source
52. Question 52 / 100General Science and Technology

    A student can read a book held close to the eyes clearly but cannot see the writing on a distant blackboard distinctly. Which lens is used in spectacles to correct this defect of vision?

    1. AConvex lens
    2. BCylindrical lens
    3. CPlane glass of zero power
    4. DConcave lens
    See the answer and explanation

    Correct answer: D. Concave lens

    The defect is myopia, or near-sightedness: the image of a distant object forms in front of the retina. A concave lens of suitable power brings the image back on to the retina. A convex lens is the wrong choice here; it corrects hypermetropia (far-sightedness), in which nearby objects are not seen distinctly.

    Source
53. Question 53 / 100General Science and Technology

    Galvanisation protects iron and steel articles from rusting by coating them with a thin layer of which metal?

    1. AZinc
    2. BTin
    3. CCopper
    4. DLead
    See the answer and explanation

    Correct answer: A. Zinc

    Galvanisation means coating steel and iron with a thin layer of zinc. The article stays protected against rusting even if the zinc coating is broken. Tin and lead are tempting because they appear in the same NCERT section, but there they are the two metals of solder, the alloy used to join electrical wires.

    Source
54. Question 54 / 100General Science and Technology

    Vinegar, widely used as a preservative in pickles, is a 5-8% solution in water of which acid?

    1. ACitric acid
    2. BEthanoic (acetic) acid
    3. CLactic acid
    4. DMethanoic (formic) acid
    See the answer and explanation

    Correct answer: B. Ethanoic (acetic) acid

    Ethanoic acid is commonly called acetic acid, and a 5-8% solution of it in water is vinegar. Pure ethanoic acid melts at 290 K and often freezes in cold climates, which gave it the name glacial acetic acid. The other three options are also organic acids, but none of them is the acid in vinegar.

    Source
55. Question 55 / 100General Science and Technology

    Which part of the human brain is responsible for the precision of voluntary actions and for maintaining the posture and balance of the body?

    1. AFore-brain
    2. BMedulla
    3. CCerebellum
    4. DMid-brain
    See the answer and explanation

    Correct answer: C. Cerebellum

    The cerebellum, a part of the hind-brain, makes possible activities such as walking in a straight line or riding a bicycle. The medulla, also in the hind-brain, controls involuntary actions such as blood pressure, salivation and vomiting. The fore-brain is the main thinking part of the brain.

    Source
56. Question 56 / 100General Science and Technology

    Each human kidney has large numbers of filtration units packed close together. What are these units called?

    1. ANeurons
    2. BAlveoli
    3. CVilli
    4. DNephrons
    See the answer and explanation

    Correct answer: D. Nephrons

    Nephrons are the filtration units of the kidney. They remove nitrogenous wastes such as urea and uric acid from the blood, and they re-absorb glucose, amino acids, salts and most of the water. Neurons are nerve cells, alveoli are the air sacs of the lungs and villi line the small intestine.

    Source
57. Question 57 / 100General Science and Technology

    According to the World Health Organization (WHO), the dengue virus is transmitted to humans through the bite of infected mosquitoes, chiefly of which genus?

    1. AAedes
    2. BAnopheles
    3. CCulex
    4. DMansonia
    See the answer and explanation

    Correct answer: A. Aedes

    Dengue is a viral infection. WHO names Aedes aegypti and Aedes albopictus as the chief vectors. Anopheles is the tempting wrong answer: infected female Anopheles mosquitoes spread malaria, which is caused by a parasite and not by a virus.

    Source
58. Question 58 / 100General Science and Technology

    In the food chain grass → grasshopper → frog → snake, the grass holds 20,000 J of energy. Taking 10% as the average amount that passes from each step to the next, as the NCERT Class 10 Science textbook does, how much energy reaches the snake?

    1. A2 J
    2. B20 J
    3. C200 J
    4. D2,000 J
    See the answer and explanation

    Correct answer: B. 20 J

    There are three transfers between grass and snake. The grasshopper gets 10% of 20,000 J = 2,000 J, the frog 10% of that = 200 J, and the snake 10% of that = 20 J. Stopping one step early gives 200 J. Because so little energy is left at each step, food chains generally have only three or four steps.

    Source
59. Question 59 / 100General Science and Technology

    Species of plants and animals that are found exclusively in a particular area, and are not naturally found anywhere else, are called what?

    1. AEndangered species
    2. BExtinct species
    3. CEndemic species
    4. DMigratory species
    See the answer and explanation

    Correct answer: C. Endemic species

    Endemic species are found only in a particular area, which may be a zone, a state or a country. Endangered species are a different idea: they are species facing the danger of extinction, and the Red Data Book keeps a record of them. A species can be endemic without being endangered.

    Source
60. Question 60 / 100General Science and Technology

    Chandrayaan-3, which soft-landed on the Moon on 23 August 2023, was launched from Sriharikota by which launch vehicle of the Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO)?

    1. APSLV
    2. BGSLV Mk II
    3. CSSLV
    4. DLVM3
    See the answer and explanation

    Correct answer: D. LVM3

    ISRO lists the flight as the LVM3-M4-Chandrayaan-3 Mission. Chandrayaan-3 had an indigenous lander module, a propulsion module and a rover, and the propulsion module carried the lander and rover to a 100 km lunar orbit. PSLV, GSLV Mk II and SSLV are other ISRO launch vehicles; none of them carried this mission.

    Source
61. Question 61 / 100General Science and Technology

    BrahMos Aerospace, which makes the BRAHMOS supersonic cruise missile system, is a joint venture between India and which country?

    1. AFrance
    2. BIsrael
    3. CRussia
    4. DUnited States
    See the answer and explanation

    Correct answer: C. Russia

    The joint venture began with an Inter-Governmental Agreement signed in Moscow on 12 February 1998. It brings together India's Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO) and Russia's NPO Mashinostroyenia, with 50.5% of the capital from the Indian side and 49.5% from the Russian side. The name joins two rivers, the Brahmaputra and the Moskva.

    Source
62. Question 62 / 100General Science and Technology

    PARAM, the series of supercomputers that India began building after it was denied the import of supercomputers, was developed by which organisation?

    1. ACentre for Development of Advanced Computing (C-DAC)
    2. BCentre for Development of Telematics (C-DOT)
    3. CNational Informatics Centre (NIC)
    4. DBharat Electronics Limited (BEL)
    See the answer and explanation

    Correct answer: A. Centre for Development of Advanced Computing (C-DAC)

    C-DAC was set up in 1988 to build supercomputers after the United States denied their import, and it has since built several generations of them, starting with PARAM. It is a research and development organisation of the Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology. C-DOT, with a similar name, works on telecom technology.

    Source
63. Question 63 / 100General Science and Technology

    Bt cotton is a pest-resistant crop made by putting a toxin gene from a bacterium into the cotton plant. Which bacterium does the "Bt" in its name stand for?

    1. AAgrobacterium tumefaciens
    2. BBacillus subtilis
    3. CBacillus thuringiensis
    4. DRhizobium leguminosarum
    See the answer and explanation

    Correct answer: C. Bacillus thuringiensis

    Bt toxin is produced by the bacterium Bacillus thuringiensis. Its gene has been cloned and expressed in plants such as cotton, so the crop resists insects without insecticides. Agrobacterium is tempting because it is also used in plant biotechnology, but as a vector that carries genes into a plant, not as the source of this toxin.

    Source
64. Question 64 / 100Current Affairs

    UDAN, a central government scheme launched on 21 October 2016, completed ten years in October 2026. What is the scheme meant to provide?

    1. AAffordable air travel on regional routes
    2. BAll-weather roads to villages
    3. CCooking gas connections for poor households
    4. DPiped drinking water to rural homes
    See the answer and explanation

    Correct answer: A. Affordable air travel on regional routes

    UDAN (Ude Desh ka Aam Nagrik) is the Regional Connectivity Scheme for air travel, connecting unserved and underserved airports. A Press Information Bureau (PIB) factsheet of 20 October 2026 said it had carried 1.72 crore passengers and brought 95 aerodromes into use, including 17 heliports and 2 water aerodromes.

    Source
65. Question 65 / 100Current Affairs

    SIMBEX-2026, the 33rd edition of a bilateral maritime exercise, began at Visakhapatnam on 21 October 2026. The Indian Navy held it with the navy of which country?

    1. AIndonesia
    2. BSri Lanka
    3. CThailand
    4. DSingapore
    See the answer and explanation

    Correct answer: D. Singapore

    SIMBEX is the Singapore-India Maritime Bilateral Exercise, held between the Indian Navy and the Republic of Singapore Navy. It began in 1994 as Exercise Lion King. The opening ceremony of the 2026 edition was held on board INS Nilgiri and INS Kamorta, and the harbour phase ran from 21 to 23 October.

    Source
66. Question 66 / 100Current Affairs

    The constitution of the National Social Security Board for unorganised workers and gig and platform workers was notified in October 2026. Who presides over this Board?

    1. AThe Prime Minister
    2. BThe Union Minister for Labour and Employment
    3. CThe Union Finance Minister
    4. DThe Chief Executive Officer of NITI Aayog
    See the answer and explanation

    Correct answer: B. The Union Minister for Labour and Employment

    The Board is presided over by the Union Minister for Labour and Employment. Its members represent the central and state governments, aggregator companies, employers, civil society organisations, workers' unions and gig and platform workers' associations. It recommends welfare schemes to the Centre and monitors the schemes the Centre runs for these workers.

    Source
67. Question 67 / 100Current Affairs

    On 4 November 2026 the Union Cabinet decided that the 75% of Agniveers who are not offered regular employment on merit at the end of their four-year term would be offered another engagement period. How long is this second engagement?

    1. A1 year
    2. B2 years
    3. C3 years
    4. D4 years
    See the answer and explanation

    Correct answer: B. 2 years

    As before, 25% of Agniveers are offered regular employment on merit after four years. The remaining 75% were offered another engagement period of 2 years. After it, all of them will be offered enrolment as regular soldiers, subject to their willingness and to meeting the selection criteria. Four years is the length of the first term, not of the second.

    Source
68. Question 68 / 100Current Affairs

    India's Free Trade Agreement (FTA) with which country entered into force on 20 October 2026, with that country eliminating customs duties on all tariff lines covering Indian exports?

    1. AAustralia
    2. BOman
    3. CNew Zealand
    4. DUnited Kingdom
    See the answer and explanation

    Correct answer: C. New Zealand

    The India-New Zealand FTA entered into force on 20 October 2026, the day of Vijayadashami. New Zealand eliminated customs duties on all tariff lines covering Indian exports, removing peak tariffs of up to 10%. Australia, Oman and the United Kingdom are also trade-pact partners of India, but the agreement that took effect on Vijayadashami 2026 was the one with New Zealand.

    Source
69. Question 69 / 100Current Affairs

    Defence Minister Rajnath Singh represented India at the 25th Meeting of the Council of Heads of Government of the Shanghai Cooperation Organisation (SCO) on 19-20 October 2026. In which city was it held?

    1. AAstana
    2. BBishkek
    3. CDushanbe
    4. DTashkent
    See the answer and explanation

    Correct answer: C. Dushanbe

    The meeting was held in Dushanbe, the capital of Tajikistan. Addressing it on 20 October 2026, Rajnath Singh called on SCO member states to dismantle the entire ecosystem of terrorism. Astana, Bishkek and Tashkent are the capitals of three other SCO members, Kazakhstan, Kyrgyzstan and Uzbekistan.

    Source
70. Question 70 / 100Current Affairs

    The 2026 Commonwealth Heads of Government Meeting (CHOGM) took place from 1 to 4 November 2026 in which Caribbean country?

    1. AAntigua and Barbuda
    2. BBarbados
    3. CJamaica
    4. DTrinidad and Tobago
    See the answer and explanation

    Correct answer: A. Antigua and Barbuda

    CHOGM 2026 was held in St John's, the capital of Antigua and Barbuda. Leaders of Commonwealth countries meet every two years, and different member countries host the meeting on a rotating basis. Barbados, Jamaica and Trinidad and Tobago are also Caribbean members of the Commonwealth, but none of them hosted the 2026 meeting.

    Source
71. Question 71 / 100Current Affairs

    On 1 November 2026, P. V. Sindhu and Lakshya Sen won the women's and men's singles titles at the same badminton tournament in Saarbrücken. Which tournament was it?

    1. ADenmark Open
    2. BFrench Open
    3. CSwiss Open
    4. DHylo Open
    See the answer and explanation

    Correct answer: D. Hylo Open

    Both titles came at the Hylo Open 2026. Sindhu beat Denmark's Line Kjaersfeldt 21-12, 21-14 and became the first Indian woman to win the Hylo Open women's singles crown. The French Open is the tempting wrong answer: Sindhu reached its final in Paris a week earlier but lost to An Se Young.

    Source
72. Question 72 / 100Current Affairs

    India finished with a record 114 medals at the Asian Para Games that concluded on 24 October 2026. Where were these Games held?

    1. AAichi-Nagoya, Japan
    2. BHangzhou, China
    3. CIncheon, South Korea
    4. DJakarta, Indonesia
    See the answer and explanation

    Correct answer: A. Aichi-Nagoya, Japan

    The Aichi-Nagoya 2026 Asian Para Games ended with a closing ceremony at the Mizuho Park Athletics Stadium in Nagoya; it was the first time the Games were held in Japan. India won 30 gold, 35 silver and 49 bronze medals. Hangzhou in China is the tempting wrong answer: it hosted the previous Games, counted as the 2023 edition.

    Source
73. Question 73 / 100Current Affairs

    In October 2026 Chinmay Sutar of Mizoram scored 400 not out against Nagaland, the second-highest individual score in the history of the Ranji Trophy. Whose 443 not out is the only higher score?

    1. APrithvi Shaw
    2. BVijay Hazare
    3. CVijay Merchant
    4. DBhausaheb Nimbalkar
    See the answer and explanation

    Correct answer: D. Bhausaheb Nimbalkar

    Bhausaheb Nimbalkar made 443 not out for Maharashtra against Kathiawar in the 1948-49 season, and Sutar is only the second batter to reach 400 in the Ranji Trophy. Prithvi Shaw is the tempting wrong answer: his 379 against Assam in January 2023 was the second-highest score until Sutar went past it. Sutar faced 517 balls and hit 46 fours.

    Source
74. Question 74 / 100Current Affairs

    A very severe cyclonic storm completed its landfall along the Andhra Pradesh and Yanam coasts on the morning of 28 October 2026. What was the cyclone named?

    1. AMichaung
    2. BArnab
    3. CMontha
    4. DMurasu
    See the answer and explanation

    Correct answer: B. Arnab

    Cyclone Arnab crossed the coast to the south-west of Yanam, about 20 km east-northeast of Narsapur, and then weakened. Montha is the tempting wrong answer: it crossed the same coast on 28 October 2025, a year earlier, as a severe cyclonic storm, so it does not fit the year in the question. Murasu was the next cyclone to head for the Andhra Pradesh coast, with landfall forecast close to Ongole on the night of 2-3 November 2026. Michaung was a cyclone of an earlier year.

    Source
75. Question 75 / 100Current Affairs

    The Nobel Prize in Physiology or Medicine 2026 was awarded to Karl Deisseroth, Peter Hegemann and Georg Nagel for a method that makes it possible to show how nerve cells shape memories, feelings and behaviours in the living brain. What is the method called?

    1. AGene editing
    2. BMagnetic resonance imaging
    3. COptogenetics
    4. DPolymerase chain reaction
    See the answer and explanation

    Correct answer: C. Optogenetics

    The prize was given "for their discoveries concerning light-gated ion channels and optogenetics". Hegemann and Nagel discovered the protein channelrhodopsin in a single-celled alga, and the method uses light to switch nerve cells. Gene editing, magnetic resonance imaging and the polymerase chain reaction are other well-known techniques in biology and medicine, but not the subject of this prize.

    Source
76. Question 76 / 100Mental Ability and Quantitative Aptitude

    Find the next number in the series: 2, 6, 12, 20, 30, ?

    1. A40
    2. B42
    3. C44
    4. D46
    See the answer and explanation

    Correct answer: B. 42

    The differences between neighbouring numbers are 4, 6, 8 and 10: the difference grows by 2 each time. The next difference is 12, so the next number is 30 + 12 = 42. (The numbers are also 1×2, 2×3, 3×4, 4×5 and 5×6, so the next is 6×7 = 42.) Adding 10 once more gives 40, but that ignores the growing difference.

77. Question 77 / 100Mental Ability and Quantitative Aptitude

    Find the next term in the series: AZ, CX, EV, GT, ?

    1. AIR
    2. BIS
    3. CHR
    4. DJQ
    See the answer and explanation

    Correct answer: A. IR

    Look at the two letters separately. The first letters A, C, E, G move two places forward each time, so the next is I. The second letters Z, X, V, T move two places backward each time, so the next is R. The next term is IR. In IS the second letter has moved back only one place, and in HR the first letter has moved forward only one place.

78. Question 78 / 100Mental Ability and Quantitative Aptitude

    In a certain code, RIVER is written as IREVI. How is STONE written in that code?

    1. AHGMLV
    2. BHGLMV
    3. CGHLMV
    4. DHGLNV
    See the answer and explanation

    Correct answer: B. HGLMV

    Each letter is replaced by the letter that stands at the same place counted from the other end of the alphabet (A↔Z, B↔Y, C↔X and so on): R→I, I→R, V→E, E→V, R→I. For STONE: S→H, T→G, O→L, N→M, E→V. So the code is HGLMV. HGMLV has the right letters but with the third and fourth in the wrong order.

79. Question 79 / 100Mental Ability and Quantitative Aptitude

    A and B are the children of a married couple, C and D. A is B's brother. C is D's husband. E is D's father. How is E related to A?

    1. AGrandfather (father's father)
    2. BMaternal uncle (mother's brother)
    3. CGrandfather (mother's father)
    4. DFather-in-law (wife's father)
    See the answer and explanation

    Correct answer: C. Grandfather (mother's father)

    C is D's husband, so C is the father and D is the mother of A and B. E is D's father, which makes E the father of A's mother: A's grandfather on the mother's side. He is not the father's father, because E is the father of D (the mother) and not of C (the father). 'Father-in-law' is how E is related to C, not to A.

80. Question 80 / 100Mental Ability and Quantitative Aptitude

    Ravi stands facing North. He turns 135° clockwise, then 90° anticlockwise, and then 180° clockwise. Which direction is he facing now?

    1. ANorth-East
    2. BNorth-West
    3. CSouth-East
    4. DSouth-West
    See the answer and explanation

    Correct answer: D. South-West

    Measure angles clockwise from North: North 0°, East 90°, South 180°, West 270°. Ravi starts at 0°. Turning 135° clockwise brings him to 135° (South-East). Turning 90° anticlockwise brings him to 45° (North-East). Turning 180° brings him to 225°, midway between South (180°) and West (270°): South-West. Stopping after the second turn gives North-East, which leaves out the last half-turn.

81. Question 81 / 100Mental Ability and Quantitative Aptitude

    In a row of students all facing the same way, Asha is 12th from the left end and Bala is 18th from the right end. The two swap places, and Asha is then 20th from the left end. How many students are there in the row?

    1. A37
    2. B38
    3. C39
    4. D40
    See the answer and explanation

    Correct answer: A. 37

    After the swap Asha stands in Bala's old place. That place is 18th from the right end and, as the question says, 20th from the left end. Total = 20 + 18 − 1 = 37. We subtract 1 because the student in that place is counted from both ends. Simply adding 20 + 18 = 38 counts that student twice.

82. Question 82 / 100Mental Ability and Quantitative Aptitude

    Five friends, Anil, Bhanu, Charan, Divya and Eswar, sit in a row, all facing North. Divya sits third to the right of Anil. Charan sits next to Divya. Eswar sits somewhere to the left of Anil. Who sits exactly in the middle of the row?

    1. AAnil
    2. BBhanu
    3. CCharan
    4. DEswar
    See the answer and explanation

    Correct answer: B. Bhanu

    Number the seats 1 to 5 from left to right. Divya is third to the right of Anil, so Anil and Divya are in seats 1 and 4, or in seats 2 and 5. Eswar is to the left of Anil, so Anil cannot be in seat 1. Hence Anil is in seat 2, Divya in seat 5 and Eswar in seat 1. Charan is next to Divya: seat 4. Only seat 3, the middle one, is left, and it goes to Bhanu. Order: Eswar, Anil, Bhanu, Charan, Divya.

83. Question 83 / 100Mental Ability and Quantitative Aptitude

    15 August 2026 was a Saturday. On which day of the week does 26 January 2027 fall?

    1. ASunday
    2. BMonday
    3. CTuesday
    4. DWednesday
    See the answer and explanation

    Correct answer: C. Tuesday

    Count the days from 15 August 2026 to 26 January 2027: 16 days left in August, 30 in September, 31 in October, 30 in November, 31 in December and 26 in January. Total = 164 days = 23 full weeks + 3 days. Full weeks do not change the day of the week, so only the 3 extra days matter. Saturday + 3 days = Tuesday.

84. Question 84 / 100Mental Ability and Quantitative Aptitude

    A clock is set right at 8 a.m. It loses 4 minutes every hour. What time does this clock show when the correct time is 6 p.m. on the same day?

    1. A5:10 p.m.
    2. B5:20 p.m.
    3. C5:30 p.m.
    4. D5:40 p.m.
    See the answer and explanation

    Correct answer: B. 5:20 p.m.

    From 8 a.m. to 6 p.m. is 10 hours. The clock loses 4 minutes in each hour, so in 10 hours it loses 10 × 4 = 40 minutes. It therefore shows 40 minutes less than 6 p.m., that is 5:20 p.m. The answer 5:40 p.m. comes from mixing up the minutes lost (40) with the minutes shown.

85. Question 85 / 100Mental Ability and Quantitative Aptitude

    In a class of 60 students, 35 play cricket and 28 play kabaddi, while 9 play neither of these two games. How many students play both games?

    1. A3
    2. B7
    3. C10
    4. D12
    See the answer and explanation

    Correct answer: D. 12

    Students who play at least one game = 60 − 9 = 51. Adding the two lists gives 35 + 28 = 63, in which those who play both games are counted twice. So the number who play both = 63 − 51 = 12. Subtracting 60 instead of 51 gives 3, which is wrong because 9 students play neither game.

86. Question 86 / 100Mental Ability and Quantitative Aptitude

    In an election with only two candidates, the winner got 58% of the valid votes and won by a margin of 2,400 votes. How many valid votes were polled in all?

    1. A15,000
    2. B16,000
    3. C18,000
    4. D20,000
    See the answer and explanation

    Correct answer: A. 15,000

    The loser got 100% − 58% = 42% of the valid votes. The margin is 58% − 42% = 16% of the valid votes, and this equals 2,400. So 1% = 2,400 ÷ 16 = 150 and the total = 150 × 100 = 15,000. Check: 8,700 − 6,300 = 2,400. Treating 2,400 as only 8% (the winner's lead over the halfway mark) would wrongly double the total.

87. Question 87 / 100Mental Ability and Quantitative Aptitude

    By selling an article for ₹1,170, a trader makes a loss of 10%. At what price should he sell it to make a profit of 15%?

    1. A₹1,345
    2. B₹1,465
    3. C₹1,495
    4. D₹1,521
    See the answer and explanation

    Correct answer: C. ₹1,495

    A loss of 10% means ₹1,170 is 90% of the cost price. Cost price = 1,170 × 100 ÷ 90 = ₹1,300. For a 15% profit the selling price must be 115% of the cost price = 1,300 × 115 ÷ 100 = ₹1,495. Simply raising ₹1,170 by 25% does not work, because both percentages are worked out on the cost price, not on the selling price.

88. Question 88 / 100Mental Ability and Quantitative Aptitude

    A sum of ₹7,500 amounts to ₹9,300 in 3 years at simple interest. What is the rate of interest per annum?

    1. A6%
    2. B8%
    3. C9%
    4. D10%
    See the answer and explanation

    Correct answer: B. 8%

    Interest for 3 years = 9,300 − 7,500 = ₹1,800, so interest for one year = 1,800 ÷ 3 = ₹600. Rate = 600 ÷ 7,500 × 100 = 8% per annum. Check: 7,500 × 8 × 3 ÷ 100 = ₹1,800.

89. Question 89 / 100Mental Ability and Quantitative Aptitude

    A sum of money invested at compound interest (compounded yearly) amounts to ₹6,050 after 2 years and to ₹6,655 after 3 years. What is the sum?

    1. A₹4,500
    2. B₹4,800
    3. C₹4,840
    4. D₹5,000
    See the answer and explanation

    Correct answer: D. ₹5,000

    Interest earned in the third year = 6,655 − 6,050 = ₹605, and it is earned on ₹6,050. Rate = 605 ÷ 6,050 × 100 = 10%. In 2 years the sum is multiplied by 1.1 × 1.1 = 1.21, so the sum = 6,050 ÷ 1.21 = ₹5,000. Check: 5,000 → 5,500 → 6,050 → 6,655. Taking ₹605 off for each of the two years gives ₹4,840, which is wrong because the interest in the earlier years was smaller.

90. Question 90 / 100Mental Ability and Quantitative Aptitude

    ₹2,100 is shared among A, B and C. The shares of A and B are in the ratio 2 : 3, and the shares of B and C are in the ratio 4 : 5. What is C's share?

    1. A₹480
    2. B₹720
    3. C₹900
    4. D₹1,050
    See the answer and explanation

    Correct answer: C. ₹900

    B must stand for the same number of parts in both ratios. Multiply 2 : 3 by 4 to get A : B = 8 : 12, and multiply 4 : 5 by 3 to get B : C = 12 : 15. So A : B : C = 8 : 12 : 15, a total of 35 parts. One part = 2,100 ÷ 35 = ₹60, and C's share = 15 × 60 = ₹900. Joining the ratios as 2 : 3 : 5 gives ₹1,050, which is wrong because B is 3 parts in one ratio and 4 in the other.

91. Question 91 / 100Mental Ability and Quantitative Aptitude

    The average weight of 12 persons goes up by 1.5 kg when a new person takes the place of one of them who weighs 54 kg. What is the weight of the new person?

    1. A72 kg
    2. B74 kg
    3. C75 kg
    4. D78 kg
    See the answer and explanation

    Correct answer: A. 72 kg

    The number of persons stays at 12. If the average rises by 1.5 kg, the total weight rises by 12 × 1.5 = 18 kg. This whole increase comes from the new person, who must therefore be 18 kg heavier than the person who left. Weight of the new person = 54 + 18 = 72 kg.

92. Question 92 / 100Mental Ability and Quantitative Aptitude

    A mother is 26 years older than her daughter. Four years from now, the mother's age will be three times the daughter's age. What is the mother's present age?

    1. A33 years
    2. B35 years
    3. C37 years
    4. D39 years
    See the answer and explanation

    Correct answer: B. 35 years

    The difference in their ages is always 26 years. Four years from now the mother is three times as old as the daughter, so the difference then is twice the daughter's age: 2 × daughter's age = 26. The daughter is then 13 and the mother 39. Their present ages are 4 years less: daughter 9, mother 35. The answer 39 is the mother's age after four years, not her present age.

93. Question 93 / 100Mental Ability and Quantitative Aptitude

    12 men can finish a piece of work in 18 days. They work for 6 days and then 4 of the men leave. In how many more days will the remaining men finish the work?

    1. A12 days
    2. B15 days
    3. C16 days
    4. D18 days
    See the answer and explanation

    Correct answer: D. 18 days

    The whole work needs 12 × 18 = 216 man-days. In the first 6 days, 12 men do 12 × 6 = 72 man-days of it. Work left = 216 − 72 = 144 man-days. After 4 men leave, 8 men remain, and they need 144 ÷ 8 = 18 days. The answer 12 days would be right only if all 12 men had stayed.

94. Question 94 / 100Mental Ability and Quantitative Aptitude

    A man drives from town P to town Q at 40 km/h and returns by the same road at 60 km/h. What is his average speed for the whole journey?

    1. A45 km/h
    2. B48 km/h
    3. C50 km/h
    4. D52 km/h
    See the answer and explanation

    Correct answer: B. 48 km/h

    Average speed = total distance ÷ total time. Take the distance between the towns as 120 km. Going takes 120 ÷ 40 = 3 hours and returning takes 120 ÷ 60 = 2 hours. Total distance = 240 km and total time = 5 hours, so the average speed = 240 ÷ 5 = 48 km/h. It is not 50 km/h, the simple average of 40 and 60, because he spends more time at the slower speed.

95. Question 95 / 100Mental Ability and Quantitative Aptitude

    A boat's speed in still water is 12 km/h. It goes 45 km downstream and comes back to the starting point, taking 8 hours in all. What is the speed of the stream?

    1. A1 km/h
    2. B2 km/h
    3. C2.5 km/h
    4. D3 km/h
    See the answer and explanation

    Correct answer: D. 3 km/h

    Let the stream's speed be s km/h. Downstream speed = 12 + s and upstream speed = 12 − s. Total time: 45 ÷ (12 + s) + 45 ÷ (12 − s) = 8. This gives 45 × 24 = 8 × (144 − s²), so 144 − s² = 135, s² = 9 and s = 3 km/h. Check: 45 ÷ 15 = 3 hours down and 45 ÷ 9 = 5 hours back, 8 hours in all. With a 2 km/h stream the trip would take only about 7.7 hours.

96. Question 96 / 100Mental Ability and Quantitative Aptitude

    Three solid metal cubes with edges of 3 cm, 4 cm and 5 cm are melted and made into one solid cube, with no metal lost. What is the edge of the new cube?

    1. A6 cm
    2. B7 cm
    3. C8 cm
    4. D12 cm
    See the answer and explanation

    Correct answer: A. 6 cm

    The volume of a cube is edge × edge × edge. The three volumes are 3³ = 27, 4³ = 64 and 5³ = 125 cubic cm. Volume of the new cube = 27 + 64 + 125 = 216 cubic cm. Since 6 × 6 × 6 = 216, the edge of the new cube is 6 cm. Adding the edges (3 + 4 + 5 = 12 cm) is wrong: when metal is melted and recast, it is the volumes that add up, not the edges.

97. Question 97 / 100Mental Ability and Quantitative Aptitude

    What is the value of 48 ÷ 6 × (9 − 5) + 7 × 3 − 12 ?

    1. A11
    2. B37
    3. C41
    4. D45
    See the answer and explanation

    Correct answer: C. 41

    Work out the bracket first: 9 − 5 = 4. Next do division and multiplication from left to right: 48 ÷ 6 = 8, then 8 × 4 = 32; and 7 × 3 = 21. Finally add and subtract: 32 + 21 − 12 = 41. Multiplying 6 × 4 before dividing gives 48 ÷ 24 = 2 and a total of 11, which is wrong because division and multiplication are done in the order they appear.

98. Question 98 / 100Mental Ability and Quantitative Aptitude

    Three bells ring at intervals of 12 minutes, 18 minutes and 30 minutes. All three ring together at 6:00 a.m. At what time do they next ring together?

    1. A7:00 a.m.
    2. B8:00 a.m.
    3. C8:30 a.m.
    4. D9:00 a.m.
    See the answer and explanation

    Correct answer: D. 9:00 a.m.

    The bells ring together after a time that is a multiple of 12, 18 and 30, so we need the LCM. 12 = 2 × 2 × 3, 18 = 2 × 3 × 3, 30 = 2 × 3 × 5. LCM = 2 × 2 × 3 × 3 × 5 = 180 minutes = 3 hours. They next ring together at 9:00 a.m. Adding the intervals (12 + 18 + 30 = 60 minutes) gives 7:00 a.m., which is wrong because 60 is not a multiple of 18.

99. Question 99 / 100Mental Ability and Quantitative Aptitude

    The numbers of men and women workers in four factories are: P: 260 men, 220 women; Q: 260 men, 240 women; R: 280 men, 320 women; S: 250 men, 300 women. What is the ratio of the total number of men to the total number of women in the four factories taken together?

    1. A35 : 36
    2. B36 : 35
    3. C21 : 22
    4. D26 : 27
    See the answer and explanation

    Correct answer: A. 35 : 36

    Total men = 260 + 260 + 280 + 250 = 1,050. Total women = 220 + 240 + 320 + 300 = 1,080. Ratio of men to women = 1,050 : 1,080. Dividing both numbers by 30 gives 35 : 36. The ratio 36 : 35 is women to men, the reverse of what is asked.

100. Question 100 / 100Mental Ability and Quantitative Aptitude

     The numbers of men and women workers in four factories are: P: 260 men, 220 women; Q: 260 men, 240 women; R: 280 men, 320 women; S: 250 men, 300 women. In which factory do women form the highest percentage of the total workers?

     1. AP
     2. BQ
     3. CR
     4. DS
     See the answer and explanation

     Correct answer: D. S

     Divide the women by the total workers in each factory. P: 220 ÷ 480 = 45.8%. Q: 240 ÷ 500 = 48%. R: 320 ÷ 600 = 53.3%. S: 300 ÷ 550 = 54.5%. The highest percentage is in S. Factory R has the largest number of women (320), but it also has more workers in all, so its percentage is slightly lower than that of S.